DAMS ‪#‎ERRATA‬# RADIOLOGY ORTHO SWS


DAMS ‪#‎ERRATA‬# RADIOLOGY ORTHO SWS
Q-1 Treatment of displaced fracture neck of femur in a child :
a. Bryant’s traction
b. Dynamic hip screw
c. Hemiarthroplasty
d. Austin Moore
Ans-1: (b) Dynamic hip screw
Q-13. A posteriorly displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus may result in injury to which nerve?
a. Radial
b. Median
c. Axillary
d. Ulnar
Ans 13:(b) Median
Q-17 An 11-year-old girl presents to your office because of a family history of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following tests would you perform?
a. Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level
b. Serum insulin level
c. Serum gastrin level
d. Serum glucagon level
Ans 17: (a) Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) level
Q-24 About fracture healing, all are true, except :
a. Lower limb long bones heal faster than other bones
b. Fracture in children heal faster than in adults
c. Oblique and spiral fractures heal faster than transverse fractures
d. Infection is the most common cause of delayed fracture union.
Ans-24: (a) Lower limb long bones heal faster than other bones/d Infection is the most common cause of delayed fracture
Q-30 Sequential monoarthritis in several joints is suggestive of
a. Lyme disease
b. Nongonococcal septic arthritis
c. Gonococcal arthritis
d. Spontaneous osteonecrosis
Ans 30:(a) Lyme disease
Q-58 Following RTA a patient presents with flexion and external rotation deformity of the left hip.Shortening of affected limb by 7 cm was also seen. A mass was noted in the left gluteal region which was moving with the movements of the femur. Most likely Xray finding would be-
a. Pepkin’s Type IV dislocation of hip
b. Dislocated hip with lesser trochanter in full profile
c. Posterior dislocation of the hip with neck in full profile
d. Acetabular roof fracture with central dislocation
Ans-58: (b) Dislocated hip with lesser trochanter in full profile
Q-64 The abnormal deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals (CPPD) would not cause :
a. Pseudogout
b. Chondrocalcinosis
c. Apical plate excrescences
d. Pseudoankylosing spondylitis
Ans-64: (a) Pseudogout
• Although surgical revision of the scar is often considered, it is not very successful when the scar cannot be stretched out and there is significant nerve entrapment.
Q-80 Most common cause of genu valgum is
a. Trauma
b. Rickets
c. Polio
d. Scurvy
Ans 80: (b) Rickets
Q-94 Open reduction in children is done for :-
a. Lateral condyle of humerus fracture
b. Medial epicondyle of humerus fracture
c. Fore arm bones fracture
d. Pulled elbow
Ans-94: (a) Lateral condyle of humerus fracture
Q-119 What dose of radiation therapy is recommended for pain relief in bone metastases :-
a. 8 Gy in one fraction
b. 20 Gy in 5 fractions
c. 30 Gy in 10 fractions
d. Above 70 Gy
Ans-119: (a) 8 Gy in one fraction
Q-148 An obese patient develops acute edematous lower limb following a pelvic surgery. Deep vein thrombosis is suspected. The most useful investigation in this case would be
a. Doppler imaging
b. Fibrinogen uptake
c. Venography
d. Plethysmography
Ans-148: (a) Doppler imaging
BONUS Q-199 Ankle Brachial pressure index value suggestive of critical ischemia is
a. 1
b. 0.9
c. 0.5
d. 0.3
Ans 199: (b) 0.9


Q-119 What dose of radiation therapy is recommended for pain relief in bone metastases :-
a. 8 Gy in one fraction
b. 20 Gy in 5 fractions
c. 30 Gy in 10 fractions
d. Above 70 Gy
Ans-119: (a) 8 Gy in one fraction
Q-148 An obese patient develops acute edematous lower limb following a pelvic surgery. Deep vein thrombosis is suspected. The most useful investigation in this case would be
a. Doppler imaging
b. Fibrinogen uptake
c. Venography
d. Plethysmography
Ans-148: (a) Doppler imaging

SWS SURGERY II ERRATA


SWS SURGERY II ERRATA
Q-81 Proteus infection leads to
a. Struvite stones
b. Uric acid stones
c. Pigment stones 
d. Calcium/Cholesterol stones
Ans 121: (a) Struvite stones
Q-84 The most common site of Carcinoid tumor is
a. Foregut
b. Mid-gut
c. Hind-gut
d. All of the above
Ans 121: (b) Mid-gut
Bonus Q-110 Most frequently performed elective surgery for peptic ulcer worldwide :
a. Proximal gastric vagotomy
b. Vagotomy + antrectomy
c. Selective gastric vagotomy
d. Vagotomy + hydroplasty
Q-121 The best management for a 48-hour-old distal esophageal perforation is:
a. Division of the esophagus and exclusion of the perforation.
b. Primary repair with buttressing.
c. Resection with cervical esophagostomy, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy.
d. T-tube fistula and drainage.
Ans 121: (c) Resection with cervical esophagostomy, gastrostomy, and jejunostomy.

GRAND TEST - 122 ERRATA

GRAND TEST ERRATA 
Ans-37: (a) Cerebroside 
Ans-71: (d) Reverse transcriptase 
Ans 106: (c) 4 years. 
Ans-167: Bonus
Ans-174: (b) Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Ans 233: (b) Bonus

Surgery-1 Errata


SURGERY -1 ERRATA
Q-12 Diagnostic of traumatic rupture of diaphragm :
a. Laparoscopy
b. Chest X ray
c. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
d. CT Scan
Ans-12: (d) CT Scan
Q-16 Most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess
a. Echinococcus
b. Klebsiella
c. Streptoccus milleri
d. Proteus vulgaris
Ans-16: (b) Klebsiella
Q-20 Longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy with preservation of head of pancreas is
a. Whipple’s procedure
b. Peustow’s procedure
c. Pringle’s procedure
d. Freys procedure
Ans-20: (b) Peustow’s procedure
Q-22 Which of the following is associated with Virchows triad :
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Disseminated malignancy
c. DVT
d. All of the above
Ans-22: (a) Hypercoagulability
Question is wrong....if you have to choose one answer then a Q-69 Breast conservation surgery not advised in
a. Lobular carcinoma
b. Ductal carcinoma in situ
c. Early breast carcinoma
d. Screening detected carcinoma
Ans-69: (d) Screening detected Ca.
Q-75 HLA matching is not necessary for :
a. Liver transplant
b. Renal transplant
c. Heart transplant
d. Corneal transplant
Ans-75: (b) Renal transplant
Q-101 Which of the following is the most common obstructive cause of dysphagia?
a. Zenker's diverticulum.
b. Esophageal stricture secondary to gastroesophageal reflux disease.
c. Neoplasm.
d. Schatzki's ring.
Ans 101: (b) Esophageal stricture secondary to gastroesophageal reflux disease
Q-108 All the following statements concerning venous thromboembolism in patients undergoing total hip replacement are true except
a. The incidence of pulmonary embolism is underestimated
b. Emboli commonly originate from thigh veins
c. Emboli commonly originate from calf veins
d. Labeled-fibrinogen scanning is not helpful in the diagnosis
Ans 108: (b) Emboli commonly originate from thigh veins
Q-119 Duplay's operation is done for :-
a. Hypospadias
b. Epispadias
c. Ectopic vericoe
d. None
Ans 119: (a) Hypospadias
Q-148 Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of the following except :
a. Ethanolamine Oleate
b. Polidocanol
c. Ethanol
d. Sodium tetradecyl sulfate
Ans-148: (c) Ethanol

Interview with our topper Dr. JAWAHAR SINGH


Interview with our topper Dr. JAWAHAR SINGH
Dr. JAWAHAR SINGH did his MBBS from SPMC BIKANER and joined DAMS
He secured Rank 48 (OBC NCL) IN AIIMS MAY 2014 Exam

DAMS: Congratulations on securing a good ranks. What is the secret of your success in this exam?
Dr.Jawahar:
Ortho Faculty.
DAMS: How did your parents, family and friends contribute to your success?
Dr.Jawahar:
They helped me in my difficult times..
DAMS:  Which books did you read for the theory part?
Dr.Jawahar:
DAMS class notes..
DAMS : Which books did you read for MCQ revision? Which revision books were the most productive and which were least?
Dr.Jawahar:
DAMS class notes.

DAMS : How important you think was DAMS in your preparation ?
Dr.Jawahar:
Time saving quick revision.
DAMS: What do you think is the better way of preparation between selective, intensive study and wide, extensive study? What did you choose as your style of studying?
Dr.Jawahar:
Revision is must.
DAMS: Indian PG entrances are highly competitive so to compete them students end up in appearing in multiple PG exams , kindly extend your views on this and also their pros and cons of appearing in multiple PG entrances .
Dr.Jawahar:
Maintain your confidence level.
DAMS: Which subjects did you focus on?
Dr.Jawahar:
Opthal, Ortho, PSM…for AIIMS.
DAMS: What was your strategy for the exam day? How many questions did you attempt and why?
Dr.Jawahar:
Cool mind and positive thinking..
DAMS: What do you want to specialize in, why and where?
Dr.Jawahar:
AIIMS
DAMS: Which teachers in DAMS influenced you most and what do you like about DAMS and would recommend to your juniors?
Dr.Jawahar:
Dr. Sumer Sethi sir, Opthal  and Ortho faculty.
    
                         

PGI Errata


120. All of the following are live vaccines
A. Cholera
B. BCG
C. KFD
D. Yellow fever
E. Mumps
                                                                                                                                                                
Answer BDE

Live attenuated vaccines
BCG
Typhoid oral
Oral polio
Yellow fever
Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Chicken pox
Influenza
Epidemic typhus
Inactivated or killed vaccines
Typhoid
Cholera
Pertussis
C.S Meningitis
Plague
Rabies
Salk
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Japanese encephalitis
KFD
Toxoids
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Human immunoglobulins
Hepatitis A
Measles
Rabies
Tetanus
Mumps
Hepatitis B
Varicella
Diphtheria
Non human antisera
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Gas gangrene
Botulism
rabies

145. The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate by gluconeogenesis
A. Occurs in both the cytosol and mitochondria
B. Is inhibited by an elevated level of glucagon
C. Requires participation of biotin
D. Involves lactate as an intermediate
E. Requires oxidation/reduction of FAD

Answer A
Biotin is the coenzyme prosthetic group of pyruvate carboxylase. The carboxylation of pyruvate occurs in the mitochondria. Glucagon stimulates gluconeogenesis. Lactate is not an intermediate in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate. However, pyruvate can be produced from lactate. FAD is not involved in gluconeogenesis

150. Which of the following organisms is unlikely to be found in the sputum of a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Acinetobacter baumannii
C. Burkholderia cepacia
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
E. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer B
Patients with cystic fibrosis are at risk for colonization and/or infection with a number of pathogens, and in general these infections have a temporal relationship. In childhood, the most frequently isolated organisms are Haemophilus influenzae and Staphylococcus aureus. As patients age, Pseudomonas aeruginosa becomes the predominant pathogen. Interestingly, Aspergillus fumigatus is found in the airways of up to 50% of cystic fibrosis patients. All these organisms merely colonize the airways but
occasionally can also cause disease. Burkholderia (previously called Pseudomonas) cepacia can  occasionally be found in the sputum of cystic fibrosis patients, where it is always pathogenic and is associated with a rapid decline in both clinical parameters and pulmonary function testing. Atypical mycobacteria can occasionally be found in the sputum but are often merely colonizers. Acinetobacter baumannii is not associated with cystic fibrosis; rather, it is generally found in nosocomial infections.

197. A 21-year-old has difficulty voiding 6 h postpartum. The least likely cause is which of the following?
a. Preeclampsia
b. Infusion of oxytocin after delivery
c. Vulvar hematoma
d. Urethral trauma
e. Use of general anesthesia

Answer A
An inability to void often leads to the diagnosis of a vulvar hematoma. Such hematomas are often large enough to apply pressure on the urethra. Pain from urethral lacerations is another reason women have difficulty voiding after delivery. Both general anesthesia, which temporarily disturbs neural control of the bladder, and oxytocin, which has an antidiuretic effect, can lead to an overdistended bladder and an inability to void. In this case an indwelling catheter should be inserted and left in for at least 24 h to allow recovery of normal bladder tone and sensation. Preeclampsia often leads to edema, which generally leads to diuresis postpartum.



AIIMS MOCK ERRATA


AIIMS MOCK ERRATA
Q-2 All are sphincters of lower genital tract of female except
a. Pubovaginalis
b. Internal urethral sphincter
c. External urethral sphincter
d. Bulbospongiosus
Ans-2: (b) Internal urethral sphincter
Q-4 Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following arteries except
a. Occipital
b. Posterior auricular
c. Thyrocervical trunk
d. Superior thyroid
Ans-4: (b) Posterior auricular
Q-102 21yr patient with Ewing sarcoma having radiotherapy. & chemotherapy which of the following indicates poor prognosis
a. β2 microglobulin
b. Fever
c. Thrombocytosis
d. Young age
Ans-102: (b) Fever
Q-103 A patient undergone surgery 1 month back, presented with complaints of altered sensorium, difficulty in urination, serum.Na 140 , K - 4.5 , urea 60 , Creatinine 1.3 , Ca 15.5 what should not be done
a. Intravenous fluid
b. Furosemide
c. Hemodialysis
d. Bisphosphanate
Ans-103: (d) Bisphosphanate
Q-133 Commonest site of soft tissue sarcoma :
a. Retroperitoneum
b. Lower extremity
c. Head
d. Upper extremity
Ans-133: (a) Retroperitoneum
Q-174 Farmer with single warty indurated lesion on dorsum of foot. Which of the following could be the lesion?
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
c. Mycetoma
d. Lichen planus hypertrophicus
Ans-174: (b) Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
Q-183 Four vessel carotid angiography is done by injecting dye into?
a. 2 external carotids+2 vertebral
b. 2 internal carotids + 2 vertebral
c. 2 internal carotids + 1 vertebral
d. 2 external carotids + 1 vertebral
Ans-183: (c) 2 internal carotids + 1 vertebral