Q.1 Carpel bones :
a. Give stability
to wrist joint
b. Give flexibility to wrist joint
c. Are seven in number
d. Are concave posteriorly
Q.2 Whenever availability
of oxygen to tissues decreases immediately :
a. Vasodilatation
and increase in blood supply to tissue takes place
b. Vasoconstriction and decrease in blood supply to tissue take place
c. Venoconstriction and increase in tissue perfusion pressure occurs
d. Venodilation and decreased in tissue perfusion pressure occurs
Q.3 Icatibant is a
a. Immunosuppressant
b. Bradykinin
receptor blocker
c. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
d. Angiotensin receptor blocker
Q.4 Flumazenil is
a. Opioid antagonist
b. Benzodiazepine
antagonist
c. Barbiturate antagonist
d. Labyrinthine sedative
Q.5 Rejection of
allografts are complex process primarily involving :
a. Immune complex deposition
b. Vascular blockage
c. Cell mediated immunity and circulating antibodies
d. Infection
Q.6 Deficiency of C1
(complement 1) inhibitor results in :
a. SLE
b. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
c. Severe recurrent pyogenic infection
d. Gram negative bacteraemia
Q.7 In case of fresh water
drowning
a. Blood volume
may increase significantly resulting in great strain on the heart
b. blood volume decreases significantly resulting in hypovolemic shock
c. Blood volume will not change in case of short duration like 2-3
minutes
d. blood volume cannot change beyond 20% due to osmotic reasons
Q.8 Odds ratio is measure
of the :
a. Association
between risk factor and outcome
b. Association between prevalence and incidence
c. Association between intervention and outcome
d. Risk versus benefit ratio of a given intervention
Q.9 A false negative test
result means :
a. Subject has no disease and test is negative
b. Subject has no disease and test is positive
c. Patient has
disease and test is negative
d. Patient has disease and test is positive
Q.10 Piatyponea means
a. Dyspnoea in the suprine position and relief in upright position
b. Dyspnoea in the
upright position with relief in the supine position
c. Dyspnoea on exertion
d. Dyspnoea waking up the patient during deep sleep
Q.11 Commonest cancer in
males is :
a. Lung
b. Prostate
c. Testis
d. Oral cavity
Q.12 In treatment of
haematological malignancy hematopoietic cell transplantation primary helps by :
a. allowing the administration of higher doses of myelosuppressive
therapy than would otherwise be possible
b. Suppressing neoplastic cells by transplanted cells
c. Selective replacing malignant cells with normal precursors
d. Inducing extra marrow regeneration of transplanted cells
Q.13 Diagnosis of irritable
bowel syndrome is based on the following criteria Except :
a. Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort at least 3 days per month in
the last 3 months
b. Improvement with defection
c. Onset associated with a change in frequency, from and appearance of
stool
d. Nocturnal
symptoms and hematochezia at least once in last 3 months
Q.14 Following are true with
respect to temper tantrums in a child except :
a. is part of normal growth of a child
b. Is abnormal and
child needs evaluation by experts
c. Time out procedure is a
proven strategy to manage
d. This subsides by 3-6 years
Q.15 Following drugs are
mood stabilizers EXCEPT
a. Lithium
b. Carbamazepine
c. Sodium valproate
d. Diazepam
Q.16 Normal cardiothoracic
ratio is :
a. 0.5
b. 0.4
c. 0.6
d. 0.7
Q.17 Crepitus over skin of
the swollen limb should alert on possibility of :
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Gas gangrene
c. Pneumococcal infection of skin
d. Venous thrombosis
Q.18 While getting blood
pressure tested patient reports abnormal feeling in finger tips followed by involuntary
spasm of fingers likely patient has :
a. Hysterical spasms
b. Pressure spasm of muscles due too neuropraxia
c. Hypocalcaemic
tetany
d. Ischaemic muscle spasms
Q.19 Kenawy’s sign positive
means
a. Venous hum over neck in Paget’s disease of skull
b. Venous hum over
epigastric in portal hypertension
c. Bruit over thyroid in thyrotoxicosis
d. Bruit of liver in case of hepatoma
Q.20 A girl or woman who
voids normally but who has dribbled urine for as long as the can remember
probably has
a. bladder neck dysfunction
b. Ectopic urter
c. psychogenic incontinence
d. neurogenic bladder
Q.21 Early post menopause
osteoporosis is :
a. Type I
osteoporosis
b. Type II osteoporosis
c. Type III osteoporosis
d. Type IV osteoporosis
Q.22 Following statements
are true on Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) . EXCEPT :
a. Useful in emergencies
b. Substitute for mask anesthesia
c. Substitute for endotracheal tube
c. Risk of pulmonary aspiration is less with LNA compared to cuffed
endotracheal tube
Q.23 Bing’s test is a test
for :
a. Hearing
b. Vertigo
c. Concentration
d. Vocal cord movements
Q.24 Following are true with
respect to maternal physiology in normal pregnancy EXCEPT:
a. There will be progressive increase In maternal blood volume
b. An increase in
heart rate and respiratory rate is noted
c. An increase in blood pressure is noted
d. Ligaments becomes lax
Q.25 Treatment of
trichomoniasis
a. Oral Fluconozole 400 mg single dose
b. Norfloxacin 400 BD for 5 days
c. Albendazole 400 mg daily for three days
d. Metronidazole
200 mg for 7 days , for both the partners
Q.26 Muscle contraction
following nerve impulse involves following steps EXCEPT :
a. Action potential across Nerve Muscle Junction (NMJ)
b. Dopamine
release at NMJ
c. Release of calcium from sarcoplamic reticulum
d. Calcium initiates attractive forces between actin and myosin
filaments
Q.27 A patient was found in
a locked room having noisy labored breathing, pin point pupils, froathing from
mouth, cyanosed and pulse rate of 40 per minute. Likely diagnosis is :
a. Soizures
b.
Organophosphours poisoning
c. Rabies
d. Paracetamol poisoning
Q.28 Buspirone primarily
a. Is an
anxiolytic
b. is a sedative
c. is a hypnotic
d. euphoric agent
Q.29 Septic shock is most
frequently triggered by
a. bacterial
infections
b. mixed infections
c. fungal infections
d. viral infections
Q.30 Blood agar is an
example for
a. Simple media
b. Complex media
c. Enriched media
d. Selective media
Q.31 Fecundation ab extra
means
a. growth of the child outside the uterus
b. child born outside the marriage
c. child born out of previous marriage in case of second marriage
d. insemination
occurring with penetration of the vagina by the penis
Q.32 In city with 10,000
population during a house to house screening done over a weekend, 300 were found to be
obese/overweight (BMI > 25). To express thee magnitude of the obesity/
overweight , precise term to used is :
a. Incidence
b. Prevalence
c. Occurrence
d. Burden
Q.33 All Indians planning to
visit African countries are required to take following vaccine else face
quarantine on return :
a. Tetanus toxoid
b. Yellow fever
vaccine
c. H1N1 vaccine
d. Monkey fever vaccine
Q.34 A middle aged female
reported with dull diffuse progressive head ache of 2 months duration
associated with episodes of vomiting and blurred vision at times .Cough
increase the head ache. Likely patient has
a. Vascular head ache
b. Intracranial
space occupying lesion
c. Intracerebral haemorrhage
d. Acute phogenic meningitis
Q.35 Constellation of neuropathy, muscle weakness and wasting ,
cardiomegaly , edema, ophthalmoplegia, confabulation strongly suggest
a. Cobalamine deficiency
b. Thiamine
deficiency
c. Niacin deficiency
d. Riboflavin deficiency
Q.36 Crytore ipitate is a
source contains following Except :
a. fibrinogen
b. Factor VII
c. Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
d. Albumin
Q.37 Gastric infection with
the bacterium H. pylori are linked with following except :
a. accounts for the majority of peptic ulcer disease
b. Plays a role in the development of gastric mucosa- Associated
Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) lymphoma Tissue (MALT) lymphoma
c. plays a role in the development of gastric adenocarcinoma
d. plays a role in development of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Q.38 A normally growing
child smiles back (social smile) at following age :
a. 2-4 weeks
b. 4-6 weeks
c. 6-8 weeks
d. 8-10 weeks
Q.39 If a patient complains
of hearing voices when no one else is present, than he has :
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Delirium
d. Overvalued ideas
Q.40 Finger nails grow at
the rate of
a. 1 cm per one month
b. 1 cm per to two month
c. 1 cm per three months
d. 1 cm per four
months
Q.41 In ulcer over skin if
there is undermined edges it suggests
a. Sysphillis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Cancerous ulcer
d. Venous ulcer
Q.42 Following are
thyrotoxicosis signs Except :
a. Ifrequent blinking
b. Inability to converge the eye balls
c. Visible upper sclera on looking straight
d. Stridor on gently pressing lobes of thyroid
Q.43 Patient reports sharp
shooting retrosternal pain progressing downward initially between scapulae and later to epigastric
region. On examination he has feeble lower limb pulse compared to upper limbs.
This is highly suggestive of :
a. Coarctation of aorta
b. Dissecting
aneurysm of aorta
c. Peripheral vascular disease
d. Aorto arteritis
Q.44 Most common position of
appendix is :
a. Pelvic
b. Retrocaecal
c. Preileal
d .Postileal
Q.45 Magnesium
a. is essential
for efficient secretion and peripheral action of PTH
b. is essential for efficient secretion and peripheral action of
calcitonin
c. is cofactor for Vit D in bone
d. Competitively occupies calcium slots in bone
Q.46 Epidural and
intrathecal (Spinal ) anesthesia may cause following Except :
a. Vasodilatation and systemic hypotension
b. hypoventilation
c. unconsciousness
d. retention of urine
Q.47 Following statements
are true with respect to Hennebert’s sign EXCEPT:
a. When fistula sign is positive with intact tympanic membrane
b. Fistula sing without fistula
c. It occurs in Meniere’s disease
d. It occurs in
acoustic neuroma
Q.48 Causes of
oligohydramnios include following EXCEPT :
a. Placental
insufficiency
b. Rupture of membrane and leak of amniotic fluid
c. Dehydration or diuretics in
mother
d. Bilateral renal agenesis in foetus
Q.49 Late menopause in
menstruation continued beyond
a. 45 years
b. 48 years
c. 52 years
d. 56 years
Q.50 Uterine fibroid is :
a. Oestrogen dependent
b. Progesterone dependent
c. Dependent on
both oestrogen and progesterone
d. Not hormone dependent
Q.51 Functions of
integumentary system includes following
Except :
a. Boundary between internal environment
b. Mobility and
postural balance
c. Temperature regulation and excretory function
d. Sensory interface between body and exterior
Q.52 Sphingomyelins are
found in large quantities in following organ:
a. Brain and
nervous tissue
b. Myocardium and blood vessel
c. Lung and airways
d. Liver and biliary tree
Q.53 Following drugs are
effective in cases of pneumocystis jiroveci EXCEPT :
a. Pentamidine
b. Trimethoprim- diaphone
c. Clinadamycin plus primaquine
d. Cefepime
Q.54 Pick The wrong
statement with respect to red infarct:
a. Occur in arterial occlusion
b. occurs in loose tissue
c. occur in tissues with dual circulations
d. occur in tissues previously congested by sluggish venous outflow
Q.55 Formaldehyde gas
sterilization is employed for :
a. Sterilizing heart lung machines
b. Glass materials
c. Paper and cloth
d. Fumigation of
operation theater of ICUs
Q.56 Organophosphorus
compounds are primarily
a. cholinesterase
inhibitor
b. cholinesterase stimulants
c. adrenergic stimulants
d. dopaminergic inhibitors
Q.57 Following are tools of
measurement to express disease magnitude :
a. Rate
b. Ratio
c. Proportions
d. Risk
Q.58 Oral polio vaccine is a
a. Toxoid
b. Live vaccine
c. Killed vaccine
d. Passive immunization
Q.59 A young man reports
chest pain retrosternal, sharp over last few hours. Pain is not related to
exertion and relieved significantly on
sitting and bending forward. Likely possibility is :
a. Angina pectoris
b. Acute pericarditis
c. Reflux esophagitis
d. Rib fracture
Q.60 Approximate sedentary
person’s daily energy requirement is resting energy expenditure multiplied by :
a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 1.3
d. 1.4
Q.61 With respect to whole
blood is stored at 4° C to maintain erythrocyte viability following statemtns
are true except :
a. Platelet dysfunction and
degradation of some coagulation factor occurs
b. 2,3 – bisphosphoglycerate levis rise over time
c. Increase in the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin and a decreased
capacity to deliver oxygen to the tissues
d. It is indicated only in case of
Q.62 Pradder- willi syndrome
is associated with following except :
a. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
b. hyperphagia- obesity
c. chronic muscle
hypertonia
d. adult- onset diabetes mellitus
Q.63 A normal child will
acquire complete neck control by :
a. 8 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks
Q.64 An otherwise healthy
person admitted for management of acute febrile illness . During the course of
the stay he became intensely restless, developed abnormal behavior including visual hallucinations. Best term to
explain his state will be :
a. Psychosis
b. Delirium
c. Anxiety
d. Depression
Q.65 In a idiopathic chronic
urticaria it is advisable to avoid
a. Aspirin
b. Pheneramine meleate
c. Fexofenadine
d. Cetirizine
Q.66 In a given case if skin
over the swelling is fixed to the swelling following are the DDs except :
a. Sebaceous cyst
b. Lipoma
c. Papilloma
d. Epithelioma
Q.67 Troisier’s sign is :
a. Enlarged vertical inguinal lymph nodes
b. enlarged
supraclavicular lymph nodes
c. Swollen lowoer limb in phlebothrorombosis
d. Swollen limb due to lymphedema of malignancy
Q.68 Blumberg’s sign is :
a. Rebound
tenderness during abdominal palpation
b. Board like rigidity of a abdomen
c. Pressure over left iliac fossa causing pain in right iliac fossa
d. Pressure over right iliac fossa causing pain in left iliac fossa
Q.69 Early dumping consists of
following EXCEPT :
a. Abdominal and vasomotor symptoms found in about 5-10% of patient
following gastrectomy or vasomotor and drainage
b. The small bowel is filled with foodstuffs from the stomach , which
have a high osmotic load
c. This leads to
the sequestration of fluid from the circulation into the gastrointestinal tract
d. This can be observed by the fall in the packed cell volume while the
symptom are present
Q.70 Following are types of
osteochondritis EXCEPT :
a. Crushing
b. Puling
c. Pushing
d. Splitting
Q.71 Intravenous entry of
local anesthetics may result in following except :
a. Depressed conscious level
b. tetany
c. Convulsions
d. cardiac arrest
Q.72 Gaze evoked amaurosis
is :
a. A normal physiological
phenomenion
b. Always suggests
orbital disease like optic nerve sheath meningioma
c. Indicates visual fatigue
d. Common after viewing television or movies for long hours
Q.73 In development of male
foetus following statement are true except :
a. Gene on short are of Y chromosome directs testes development
b. During intrauterine life testes has no endocrine role in foetus
c. Around 8 weeks
internal and external genitalia differentiates into male pattern
d. Antimullerian hormone inhibits development of mullerian system in
male foetus
Q.74 Following are true with
respect to Raloxifene except :
a. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modular
b. It has no major
side effects like venous thrombosis
c. Reduces fracture risk by 50%
d. It reduces total and LDL cholesterol
Q.75 Following are proven
interceptives except :
a. Levonorgestrel (LNG) 0.75 mg PO
twice
b. RU 486 10 mg PO
c. Vaginal
douching
d. Copper IUCD
Q.76 Homeostasis is body’s
mechanisms
a. Meant to stop bleeding
b. For maintenance
of nearly constant condition in the
internal environment
c. For maintenance of body posture
d. For maintenance of body blood pressure
Q.77 Following statement are
true with respect to glycogen except :
a. Principle storage of carbohydrate in the human body is glycogen
b. Liver and muscel are the main sites
of glycogen storage
c. Produced by glycogenesis
d. Insult amulates
glycogenolysis
Q.78 Mycophenolate mofetil
is used in :
a. Prevention of organ transplantation rejection
b. Tuberculosis
c. Leprosy
d. Methanol poisoning
Q.79 French paradox is :
a. A one and food
– loving French population with a low incidence of obesity and cardiovascular
disease
b. In- spite of heave smoking lower incidence of bronchogenic carcinoma
in frace
c. A physical fitness conscious French population still having higher
incidence of cardiovascular disease
d. In – spite of high sugar intake in diet a lower incidence of obesity
and type 2 DM
Q.80 Select the correct
statement on spores of microbes
a. Spores are unique for fungus
b. Some bacteria
for fungus
c. Spores are highly labile and sensitive to temperature and chemicals
d. Spores are method of reproduction for bacteria
Q.81 Scorpion venom is :
a. never fatal
b. less potent toxin than snake venom
c. a potent
autonomic nervous system stimulator
d. a potent autonomic nervous system inhibitor
Q.82 If an intervention is
started in the childhood to prevent obesity then it is best called as
a. Tertiary prevention
b. Primordial
prevention
c. Secondary prevention
d. Primary prevention
Q.83 Droplet nuclei is
typically sized
a. Less than 1 micron
b. 1-10 micron
c. 11-100 micron
d. > 101 micron
Q.84 In urban population per
day per person total water requirement is :
a. 50-100 liters
b. 100 – 150 liters
c. 150 – 200
liters
d. 200-300 liters
Q.85 A young man reported
with history of 6 kg weight loss 3 months and on examination found to have
generalized lymph node enlargement . likely possibilities are following :
a. HIV AIDS
b. Lymphoma
c. Chronic malaria
d. Disseminated tuberculosis
Q.86 Following are common
features in multiple myeloma except :
a. Body ache and pain
b. Elevated serum globulin
c. Renal failure
d. Hypocalcaemia
Q.87 The most common type of
hereditary neuropathy
a. Charcot – Marie – Tooth (CMT) disease
b. Hereditary sensory autonomic neuropathy
c. Fabry disease
d. Refsum disease
Q.88 Following are common
cause of short stature in a child except :
a. Familial
b. Under nutrition
c. Turners syndrome
d. Klinefelter’s
syndrome
Q.89 A child with mild
anemia and splenomegaly , on HPLC evaluation of Hb has absent HbA elevated HbF
and elevated HbA2 .
a. This rules out thalassemia
b. Child has beta
thalassemia
c. Child has sickle cell disease
d. Child has beta thalassemia trait
Q.90 Following systemic
agents are used in the management of psoriasis except :
a. Methotrexate/ retinoids
b. Ciclosporin / mycophenolate
c. Chloroquine / Hydroxychloroquine
d. Infliximab/ etanercept
Q.91 Cough impulses is
likely when a swelling is in continuity with following except :
a. Abdominal cavity
b. Pleural cavity
c. Cranium or spinal canal
d. Hip or shoulder
Q.92 Mikulicz’s disease
presents as
a. Enlargement of upper cervical lymph nodes
b. Enlargement of parotid, submandibular salivary and lacrimal gland
c. Systemic illness with dry mouth, joint pain and fever
d. Fever
hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy
Q.93 Initial
periumbilical shifting to right iliac
fossa is symptom suggestive of :
a. Abdominal worms
b. Mesenteric ischemia
c. Acute
appendicitis
d. Right ureteric colic
Q.94 Select the wrong
statement with respect to Cleft lip and palate:
a. Have possible genetic and environmental predisposition
b. Frequency varies among population groups
c. Cleft lip with palate is the most common combination
d. Antenatal diagnosis is not possible
Q.95 Following drugs/
chemicals are known to produce osteonecrosis except :
a. Glycocorticoids
b. Alcohol
c. Cytotoxic drugs
d. NSAIDS
Q.96 Sevoflurate is a :
a. Is used in Total intravenous Anesthesia
b. Inhaled general
anesthetic agent
c. Ingested painkiller
d. Transdermal analgesic
Q.97 In low grade
anisometropia (<2 .5d="" p="">
2>
a. Eye strain symptoms are common
b. Perfect binocular vision is possible without eye strain
c. Uniocular vision develop
d. Amblyopia may develop
Q.98 Spinbarkeit means
a. Just after menstrual bleeding thick minimal secretion closing the
cervix
b. After ovulation change in nature of cervical mucus
c. Copious amounts
of thin cervical secretion with its threadability just before ovulation
d. Physiological leucorrhoea
Q.99 Diagnosis or
preeclampsia is suspected with following except :
a. Blood pressure Is 140/90 or more
b. Increased urinary protein of more than 0.3 gm/l
c. Elevated urea / creatinine / uric acid
d. Pedal oedema
Q.100 Following are uses of
intra uterine contraceptive devices EXCEPT :
a. As a contraceptive
b. In management of menorrhagia (Mirena)
c. In management
of pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Post coital contraception
Q.101 Select the statement not
true with respect to transverse thoracic plane
a. Is the demarcation plane between superior and inferior mediastinum
b. Passes anteriorly from sterna angle to posteriorly T4 disc
c. Is an important anatomical and radiological marking
d. Passes through
the cardiac chambers in normal subjects
Q.102 Following are true with
respect to citric acid cycle except :
a. It is the final pathway for oxidation of carbohydrate , lipids and
proteins
b. It takes place in the mitochondria
c. It is amphibolic having role in gluconeogenesis , fatty acid
synthesis and amino acid inter conversion
d. Vitamin B12
is essential for citric acid cycle
Q.103 Misoprostol is used in prevention of
a. Migraine
b. NSAID induced
peptic ulcer
c. Alcoholic hepatitis
d. PCOd
Q.104 NNK, NNN and polonium 210
are carcinogen specific for :
a. tobacco related oral cancer
b. tobacco related bronchogenic carcinoma
c. prostatic carcinoma
d. hepatocellular carcinoma
Q.105 Length of most of the
bacteria of medical importance are about
a. 0.5-1 micron
b. 1-3 micron
c. 3-5 micron
d. 5-10 micron
Q.106 Treatment of human
brucellosis includes following except :
a. Rifampicin
b. Azithromycin
c. Streptomycin/ gentamicin
d. Doxycycline
Q.107 In Iceberg phenomenon of
a disease , water line demarcates :
a. Apparent and
inapparent cases
b. Live and dead patient
c. Infective and non- infective patients
d. Treated and untreated cases
Q.108 Reservoir for typhoid
fever infection is :
a. A case of
typhoid
b. Stool
c. Contaminated water
d. Domestic fly
Q.109 Acceptable noise level at
residential living room is less than
a. 20 dB
b. 40 dB
c. 60 dB
d. 80 dB
Q.110 In an anaemic patient
with low reticulocyte count suggests following possibilities EXCEPT :
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Vit. B12 deficiency
c. Thalassemia
minor
d. Pure red cell aplasia
Q.111 Which of the following
has least impact on life expectancy since point of diagnosis :
a. Chronic myeloid leukemia
b. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia
c. Acute myeloid
d. Acute lymphoid leukaemia
Q.112 Commonest cause of acute
folliculitis ( hair follicle infection ) is
a. Staphylococcus
aureus
b. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
c. Proplonbacterium acnes
d. Streptococcus viridians
Q.113 Mean head circumference
at birth is:
a. 33 – 35 cms
b. 38 – 40 cms
c. 42-45 cms
d. 48-51 cms
Q.114 If mother is HBsAg
positive then new born should be given :
a. Hepatitis vaccine at 6 weeks
b. Hepatitis vaccine at birth
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin with 24 hours of birth
d. Hepatitis B
Vaccine at birth and immunoglobulin with
in 24 hours at separate site
Q.115 Following is example for
very potent topical glucocorticoid
a. Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% (Eumovate)
b. Betamethasone 0.025% ( Betnovate RD)
c. 0.5%, 1%, 2.5% hydrocortisone
d. Clobetasol
propionate 0.05% (Dermovate)
Q.116 A midan caused parson is
rushed to emergency department with history of loss of motor power cn left
upper and lower limb since last 30 minutes. Imaging modality of choice to plan
appropriate treatment will be
a. CT scan of the
head
b. MRI of the brain
c. Carotid Doppler study
d. EEG
Q.117 In general commonest
haemorrhage following head injury is :
a. Subcortical
b. Extradural
c. Subdural
d. Intraventricular
Q.118 Dysphagia lusoria means
dysphagia
a. for very cold items
b. due to
abdominal origin and course of high subclavian artery
c. atresia of oesophagus
d. benign stricture of oesophagus
Q.119 Surgical blade number
useful for arteriotomy is :
a. 10
b. 11
c. 15
d. 22
Q.120 Pseudoparesis is :
a. hysterical weakness
b. hypokalaemia with weakness
c. a child with septic arthritis reluctant to move the limb
d. malingering involving limb weakness
Q.121 In management of the
fracture neck femur
a. Operative
treatment ins mandatory irrespective of age
b. Conservative or operative management outcome are similar
c. Operative management for young and fit
d. Operative management for old
Q.122 In very high myopia
(short sight) it advisable to
a. Wear spectacles for far vision only
b. Wear spectacles
continuously during wakeful hour
c. Remove spectacles while reading or work on nearby object spectacle
can be removed
d. Whether spectacle is worn or not during near vision no change in
long term outcome with respect to binocular vision
Q.123 Following statements on
Corpus luteum are true Except :
a. It is the source of progesterone in post ovulatory phase of
menstrual cycle
b. Its function depends on continued LH production
c. It regress to from corpus albicans
d. It has no role
to play once conception has occurred
Q.124 A young married female
brought to emergency department with lower abdominal pain and severe dizziness
and two episodes of syncope since last 12 hours. Blood pressure on arrival was
80/40 mm Hg and standing BP was not recordable and patient had near syncope on
sitting position. Likely diagnosis you would to rule out is :
a. Acute appendicitis
b. Torsion ovaries
c. Acute pancreatitis
d. Ruptured
ectopic pregnancy
Q.125 Infertility implies
a. Apparent
failure of the couple to conceive
b. Absolute inability to conceive
c. Difficulty to perform
d. Difficulty to have an erection
Q.126 Lambda is the junction
between
a. Occipital and frontal bones
b. Frontal and temporal bones
c. Parietal and
occipital bones
d. Frontal and parietal bones
Q.127 Following are true with
respect to Menkes disease Except :
a. It is characterized by kinky hair
b. Growth retardation
c. Dietary deficiency
of zinc
d. Lysyt oxidase enzyme deficiency resulting in weak collagen fibro
Q.128 Bosentan is a:
a. Animetabolite agent
b. Antiosteporotic agent
c. Anglotensin receptor blocker
d. Endothelin
antagonist
Q.129 Family of Toll- Like
receptor (TLRs) are
a. Most important for oncogene activation by virus and plays important
role in cancer
b. Essential for glucose homeostasis
c. Most important for entry of retrovirus into the immune cells
d. Most important
receptors for microbial products to initiate acute inflammation
Q.130 Following statement are
true on dark ground microscopy except :
a. Suitable for slender organisms like spirochetes
b. Dark field condenser with a central circular stop used to illuminate
the object
c. Light falling on the object with a dark background reflect and
objects appear self- luminous
d. Transmitted
light is used to illuminate the object
Q.131 Haemophilus influenza
causes following syndromes in humans except :
a. Pneumonia
b. Croup
c. Meningitis
d. Urinary infection
Q.132 Epidemiological triad is
formed by following except :
a. Environment
b. Agent
c. Host
d. Socio- economic
status
Q.133 The correct statement on
the term epidemic is :
a. Specifically used for infective diseases
b. Specifically used for non- communicable disease
c. Unusually high
occurrence of disease / health related issue in a population
d. Always used for acute/ dramatic occurrences
Q.134 Reliable test of adequate
pasteurization of milk is :
a. Taste
b. Small
c. Coliform count
of zero in 1 ml of milk
d. Coliform count of upto 100 per ml of milk
Q.135 The presence of
scleral icterus indicates a minimum
serum bilirubin of :
a. 1 mg/ dl
b. 2 mg/dl
c. 3 mg/dl
d. 4 mg/dl
Q.136 Following investigation
are required in initial evaluation of a chronic myeloid leukaemia patient
except :
a. Peripheral smear
b. Test for Philadelphia chromosome
c. Bone marrow testing
d. HLA typing
Q.137 Dabigatran etexilate is a
a. oral antiepileptic
b. oral thrombin
inhibitor
c. oral anti-parkinsonism agent
d. oral hypoglycaemic agent
Q.138 Following statement are
true in diastolic dysfunction of the left ventricles EXCEPT :
a. It presents as dyspnoea on exertion
b. Tachycardia
will improve the symptoms
c. Uncontrolled hypertension is an important cause
d. Ischaemic heart disease
Q.139 Case of proven vitamin A
deficiency in a child who has clouding
of cornea of cornea is treated with:
a. Oral vitamin A tablets 100 IU /day
b. Oral syrup of vitamin A single dose 1,000 IU/ day
c. IM injection vitamin A 5,000 IU once
d. IM injection
vitamin A 50, 000 IU once
Q.140 In the presence of a
focal lesion causing itch, touch on the surrounding areas may be conducted
along non- itch fibres but be centrally reinterpreted as itch . This is called
as :
a. Alloknesis
b. Pruritis
c. Allodynia
d. Psychogenic itching
Q.141 In a knee joint X- ray
taken in standing position demonstration of joint space narrowing indicates :
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Artificial knee joint
c. Septic arthritis
d. Osteomalacia
Q.142 Consistency of mass of
osteosarcoma is
a. Eggs shell crackling feeling
b. Firm to hard
c. Soft to Firm
d. Variable consistency on various part
Q.143 Clinical stage II of
carcinoma breast means
a. Tumor is limited to breast
b. Tumor with evidence of distance metastasis
c. Tumor is
present in the breast and axially lymph nodes are involved
d. Tumor has involved breast pectoral muscles and wide area of skin
Q.144 Male with history of
bilateral undescended testis
a. Is likely going
to be sterile
b. Risk of testicular neoplasm is same as other males
c. Pathophysiology is merely mechanical problem in descent of testis
d. Intervention for psychological purpose is not a requremnt :
Q.145 Sequestra is typical
feature of :
a. Acute osteomyelitis
b. Chronic
osteomyelitis
c. Septic arthritis
d. Osteoarthritis
Q.146 Likely cause of
multidirectional shoulder instability is due to :
a. Trauma
b. Lax ligaments
or muscles
c. Seizure
d. Emotional distrubace
Q.147 Micropsia is seen in :
a. Visual cortex lesions
b. Retinal lesions
c. Leas pathology
d. Corneal pathology
Q.148 Dysoosis means
a. Depression with abnormal somnolence
b. Functional weakness of voice in presence of normal organ
c. Functional weakness of right upper limb
d. Functional numbness of one side of the body
Q.149 Following statement on
non stress test are true except :
a. Beat to beat
heart rate variability indicates foetal distress
b. Foetal movements accelerates the heart rate in a healthy foetus
c. Usual NST observation session lasts 20 minutes
d. It can be repeated at weekly intervals or more frequently based on
need
Q.150 A Q tip cotton swab test
is performed In suspected case of :
a. Sexual assault
b. Genuine stress
incontinence
c. Prolapse of uterus
s. Fallopian tube block
Q.151 Skin immediately around
the umbilicus is supplied by :
a. Anterior
cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 10
b. Lateral cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 10
c. Anterior cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 12
d. Lateral cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 12
Q.152 Very low activity of
adenosine deaminase in sample of red cells and high levels of dATP is
consistent with diagnosis of :
a. Organophosphorus poisoning
b. Severe combined
immunodeficiency disease
c. Cyanide poisoning
d. Acquired immunodeficiency disease
Q.153 Aliskiren is:
a. Antihistaminic
b. Beta blocker
c. Renin inhibitor
d. Antipsychotic
Q.154 Following statement are
correct on apoptosis except :
a. Apopposis means programmed cell death
b. Apoptosis is always pathological
c. Apoptosis can be triggered by virus
d. DNA oamage can trigger apoptosis
Q.155 The single most important
factor in cervical oncogenesis is
a. Age at first sexual intercourse
b. Poor socioeconomic status
c. Number of children delivered
d. HPV 16 of HPB
18 infection
Q.156 Usual culture media used
to grow diphtheria bacillus is :
a. Loffler’s serum
slope
b. Egg media
c. Wilson Blair medium
d. McLeod’s medium
Q.157 Crude death rate means
a. Number of death per 100 population per year in a given community
b. Number of death
per 1,000 population per year in a given community
c. Number of death per 10,000 population per year in a given community
d. Number of death per 100,000 population per year in a given community
Q.158 A study showed perinatal
mortality of 20 per 1000 birth in a tertiary care hospital and 5 per 1000
births in a cluster of primary health centers. Concluding immediately that PHC
delivery are safer than tertiary care hospital
care hospital is :
a. Direct association
b. Spurious
association
c. Indirect association
d. Causal association
Q.159 In case of Kyasanur
Forest disease (KFD) main reservoir of the Virus are
a. Monkeys
b. Rats and
squirrels
c. Birds and bats
d. Humans
Q.160 For development of
alveolar PO2 of 60 mmHg and high altitude illness to develop in an
otherwise healthy person from sea , level , rapid ascent to following height is
required :
a. 2000 meters
b. 3000 meters
c. 4000 meters
d. 5000 meters
Q.161 During the course of
evaluation of a case of polycythemia following investigation may be required to
establish the cause EXCEPT :
a. Erythropoietin level
b. Arterial blood gas analysis
c. Bone marrow examination
d. Serum iron
profile
Q.162 Primary abnormality in
sequence of event leading to DIC is :
a. Fibrin deposits in multiple sites
b. Uncontrolled thrombin generation
c. Abnormal adhesion and consumption of platelets
d. Destruction of red cells
Q.163 Following are risk
factors for contrast nephropathy EXCEPT :
a. Metformin
b. Dehydration
c. NSAIDs
d. Hall normal
saline
Q.164 Following statements are
true with respect to a child with marasmus Except :
a. It is a severely wasted and has ‘skin and bone’ monkey facies
b. Child appears alert and active
c. Child is more
prone for infection and has higher mortality compared to kwashiorkor
d. Appetite is good
Q.165 Following are features of
diazepam withdrawal syndrome EXCEPT :
a. Anxiety
b. Hallucinations
c. Epileptic seizures
d. Increased sleep
Q.166 Purely for diagnostic
purpose preferred mode of visualizing biliary tree will be
a. Endoscopic Retrograde cholangio pancreaticogram (ERCP)
b. Percutaneous Transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC)
c. Magnetic
Resonance cholangio pancroaticogram (MRCP )
d. CT angiogram
Q.167 Trigger finger is :
a. Common among police and soldiers due to excess use of finger over
trigger
b. Due to little
thickening of flexor sheath of the tendon
c. Due to little thickening of extensor sheath of the tendon
d. Due to median nerve damage
Q.168 Following statement are
true with respect to ‘ discharge of blood from nipple’ EXCEPT :
a. It is
occasionally normal
b. Suggests duct papilloma
c. Suggests carcinoma breast
d. Always needs further evaluation
Q.169 Inguinal hernia in
children is :
a. Almost always
indirect
b. almost always direct
c. chance of direct and indirect are almost same
d. impossible
Q.170 Dieulafoy’s disease is :
a. Essentially features of portal gastropathy
b. essentially a
gastric arterial venous malformation and that has a characteristic histological
appearance
c. Essentially oesophageal varices
d. cherry red spot seen in portal
Q.171 Mucopolysacchridoses is
characterized by following except :
a. Mental retardation
b. Normal bone and joints
c. Hepatosplenomegaly
d. Lysosomal enzyme deficiency
Q.172 Colored halos are seen in
the following condition except :
a. Acute angle closure glaucoma
b. Cataracts
c. Corneal oedema
d. Retro bulbar
neuritis
Q.173 Stewart’s granuloma is :
a. Chronic inflammatory granuloma
b. Chronic vasculitis granuloma
c. A type of sinonasal lymphoma
d. A type of fungal granuloma
Q.174 During pregnancy female
with normal body mass index will gain :
a. 3-6 kgs
b. 6-10 kgs
c. 11-16 kgs
d. 17-20 kgs
Q.175 True incontinence of
urine in female is caused by :
a. Threadworm infestation and nocturnal incontinence in young girls
b. Prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall
c. Vesicovaginal fistula
d. Cystitis
Q.176 Superior thoracic
aperture is bounded by following except :
a. T1 vertebra
c. 1st pair of ribs and their costal cartilage
c. Superior border of the manubrium
d. Xiphoid process
Q.177 Following organ / tissue
have proven endocrine function/ capability except:
a. Heart
b. Adipocytes
c. Stomach
d. Salivary gland
Q.178 Metolazone is a
a. Antidepressant
b. Thiazide
diuretic
c. Sympathomimetic agent
d. Anxiolytic agent
Q.179 Following statement are
true with respect to hyperplasia EXCEPT :
a. Increase in cell size and number is hyperplasia
b. Increase in cell number is hyperplasia
c. Hyperplasia is not cancer
d. Hyperplasia may predispose to cancer
Q.180 Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome
is a
a. X-linked recessive disease
b. X- linked dominant disease
c. Autosomal dominant disease
d. Autosomal recessive disease
Q.181 Following are true with
respect to genus neisseria EXCEPT :
a. Gram negative
b. Anaerobic
c. Nonsporulating
d. Oxidase positive coccl
Q.182 Most of the aircraft
accidents occurs
a. during take off
b. In mid air
c. during landing
d. as act of terror
Q.183 Strength evidence is
strongest if it is supported by :
a. Case reports
b. Retrospective study
c. Non randomized controlled trials
d. Randomized
controlled trials
Q.184 DOTS stand for :
a. Daily oral therapy short course (for TB)
b. Directly
observed Therapy short cause
c. Drugs of Tuberculosis short course
d. Drugs of Tuberculosis supplied (free )
Q.185 Chronic cough means cough
as a symptoms for
a. > 4 weeks
b. > 8 weeks
c. > 12 weeks
d. > 16 weeks
Q.186 What is the total body
iron content on an average in a 80 kg male :
a. 2000 mgs
b. 3000 mgs
c. 4000 mgs
d. 5000 mgs
Q.187 The major regulator of
platelet production is the hormone Thrombopoletin (TPO) is produced by :
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Endothelium
d. Spleen and lymph nodes
Q.188 Select the wrong
statement with respect to the variable required to calculate the MELD score :
a. The prothrombin time expressed as international normalized Ratio
(INR)
b. Serum albumin
c. Serum bilirubin
d. Serum creatinine
Q.189 To diagnose ADHD in a
child fulfilling the criteria following are must except :
a. Behaviour must start before
the age of 7 years
b. Present for at least 6 month
c. Pervasive ( present in at 2 different setting ) and impair child
ability to function normally
d. symptom can be
secondary to some other disorders
Q.190 A young man who survived
unharmed in Mumbai terror attack developed fearfulness, insomnia and lack of
concentration after few months. He is likely to have
a. Anxiety state
b. Post traumatic
stress disorder
c. Acute stress reaction
d. Adjustment disorder
Q.191 Important radiological
features suggesting rotation or otherwise of a chest X- ray PA view is :
a. Symmetry of the chest shadow
b. Tracheal shadow over vertebrae
c. Clavicular
heads symmetrical on either side of spine
d. Spine acromion distance
Q.192 Adson’s test is elicited
in a suspected case of :
a. Congenital dislocation of hip
b. Cervical rib
c. Subluxation of shoulder
d. Direct inguinal hernia
Q.193 Multiple sinuses and
induration of chest wall is likely due to :
a. Tuberculosis
b. Atypical mycobacterial infection
c. HIV – AIDS patient with tuberculosis
d. Pulmonary
actinomycosis
Q.194 Following are basic rules
for wound closure except :
a. Wound edges should be left slightly gaping to allow swelling
b. Edges should be
inverted
c. The knot should be placed to one side of the wound
d. Knots must be secure , with the ends long enough to grasp when
removing the suture
Q.195 Following nutritional
consequences are possible following peptic ulcer surgeries other than vagotomy
:
a. Iron deficiency
b. Weight loss
c. Vitamin B12
deficiency
d. Folic acid deficiency
Q.196 Following can lead to
osteomalacia except :
a. Dietary deficiency
b. Calcium deficiency in diet
c. Gastrectomy
d. Lack of exposure to sunlight
Q.197 Vecuronium is a :
a. Hypnotic
b. muscle relaxant
c. analgesic
d. sedative
Q.198 Aural myiasis means
a. impaired hearing of whispered voice
b. presence of
maggots in the ear
c. presence of fungal infection in the ear
d. Presence of deafness for high pitched sounds
Q.199 Commonest presentation of
foetus during labour is
a. Occipitoposterior
b. Left
occipitotransverse
c. Right occipitotransverse
d. Breech
Q.200 Risk of perinatal
transmission of HIV from mother to child with use of anti-retroviral drugs in
mother during pregnancy and labour is :
a. 30 %
b. 10 %
c. 5%
d. 2 %
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