KARNATAKA CET-2013

Q.1         Carpel bones :

a. Give stability to wrist joint

b. Give flexibility to wrist joint

c. Are seven in number

d. Are concave posteriorly

Q.2         Whenever availability of oxygen to tissues decreases immediately :

a. Vasodilatation and increase in blood supply to tissue takes place

b. Vasoconstriction and decrease in blood supply to tissue take place

c. Venoconstriction and increase in tissue perfusion pressure occurs

d. Venodilation and decreased in tissue perfusion pressure occurs

Q.3         Icatibant is a

a. Immunosuppressant

b. Bradykinin receptor blocker

c. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

d. Angiotensin receptor blocker

Q.4         Flumazenil is

a. Opioid antagonist

b. Benzodiazepine antagonist

c. Barbiturate antagonist

d. Labyrinthine sedative

Q.5         Rejection of allografts are complex process primarily involving :

a. Immune complex deposition

b. Vascular blockage

c. Cell mediated immunity and circulating antibodies

d. Infection

Q.6         Deficiency of C1 (complement 1) inhibitor results in :

a. SLE

b. Hereditary angioneurotic edema

c. Severe recurrent pyogenic infection

d. Gram negative bacteraemia

Q.7         In case of fresh water drowning

a. Blood volume may increase significantly resulting in great strain on the heart

b. blood volume decreases significantly resulting in hypovolemic shock

c. Blood volume will not change in case of short duration like 2-3 minutes

d. blood volume cannot change beyond 20% due to osmotic reasons

Q.8         Odds ratio is measure of the :

a. Association between risk factor and outcome

b. Association between prevalence and incidence

c. Association between intervention and outcome

d. Risk versus benefit ratio of a given intervention

Q.9         A false negative test result means :

a. Subject has no disease and test is negative

b. Subject has no disease and test is positive

c. Patient has disease and test is negative

d. Patient has disease and test is positive

Q.10       Piatyponea means

a. Dyspnoea in the suprine position and relief in upright position

b. Dyspnoea in the upright position with relief in the supine position

c. Dyspnoea on exertion

d. Dyspnoea waking up the patient during deep sleep

Q.11       Commonest cancer in males is :

a. Lung

b. Prostate

c. Testis

d. Oral cavity

Q.12       In treatment of haematological malignancy hematopoietic cell transplantation primary helps by :

a. allowing the administration of higher doses of myelosuppressive therapy than would otherwise be possible

b. Suppressing neoplastic cells by transplanted cells

c. Selective replacing malignant cells with normal precursors

d. Inducing extra marrow regeneration of transplanted cells

Q.13       Diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome is based on the following criteria Except :

a. Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort at least 3 days per month in the last 3 months

b. Improvement with defection

c. Onset associated with a change in frequency, from and appearance of stool

d. Nocturnal symptoms and hematochezia at least once in last 3 months

Q.14       Following are true with respect to temper tantrums in a child except :

a. is part of normal growth of a child

b. Is abnormal and child needs evaluation by experts

c. Time out procedure  is a proven strategy to manage

d. This subsides by 3-6 years

Q.15       Following drugs are mood stabilizers EXCEPT

a. Lithium

b. Carbamazepine

c. Sodium valproate

d. Diazepam

Q.16       Normal cardiothoracic ratio is :

a. 0.5

b. 0.4

c. 0.6

d. 0.7

Q.17       Crepitus over skin of the swollen limb should alert on possibility of :

a. Osteoarthritis

b. Gas gangrene

c. Pneumococcal infection of skin

d. Venous thrombosis

Q.18       While getting blood pressure tested patient reports abnormal feeling in finger tips followed by involuntary spasm of fingers likely patient has :

a. Hysterical spasms

b. Pressure spasm of muscles due too neuropraxia

c. Hypocalcaemic tetany

d. Ischaemic muscle spasms

Q.19       Kenawy’s sign positive means

a. Venous hum over neck in Paget’s disease of skull

b. Venous hum over epigastric in portal hypertension

c. Bruit over thyroid in thyrotoxicosis

d. Bruit of liver in case of hepatoma

Q.20       A girl or woman who voids normally but who has dribbled urine for as long as the can remember probably has

a. bladder neck dysfunction

b. Ectopic urter

c. psychogenic incontinence

d. neurogenic bladder

Q.21       Early post menopause osteoporosis is :

a. Type I osteoporosis

b. Type II osteoporosis

c. Type III osteoporosis

d. Type IV osteoporosis

Q.22       Following statements are true on Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) . EXCEPT :

a. Useful in emergencies

b. Substitute for mask anesthesia

c. Substitute for endotracheal tube

c. Risk of pulmonary aspiration is less with LNA compared to cuffed endotracheal tube

Q.23       Bing’s test is a test for :

a. Hearing

b. Vertigo

c. Concentration

d. Vocal cord movements

Q.24       Following are true with respect to maternal physiology in normal pregnancy EXCEPT:

a. There will be progressive increase In maternal blood volume

b. An increase in heart rate and respiratory rate is noted

c. An increase in blood pressure is noted

d. Ligaments becomes lax

Q.25       Treatment of trichomoniasis

a. Oral Fluconozole 400 mg single dose

b. Norfloxacin 400 BD for 5 days

c. Albendazole 400 mg daily for three days

d. Metronidazole 200 mg for 7 days , for both the partners

Q.26       Muscle contraction following nerve impulse involves following steps EXCEPT :

a. Action potential across Nerve Muscle Junction (NMJ)

b. Dopamine release at NMJ

c. Release of calcium from sarcoplamic reticulum

d. Calcium initiates attractive forces between actin and myosin filaments

Q.27       A patient was found in a locked room having noisy labored breathing, pin point pupils, froathing from mouth, cyanosed and pulse rate of 40 per minute. Likely  diagnosis is :

a. Soizures

b. Organophosphours poisoning

c. Rabies

d. Paracetamol poisoning

Q.28       Buspirone primarily

a. Is an anxiolytic

b. is a sedative

c. is a hypnotic

d. euphoric agent

Q.29       Septic shock is most frequently triggered by

a. bacterial infections

b. mixed infections

c. fungal infections

d. viral infections

Q.30       Blood agar is an example for

a. Simple media

b. Complex media

c. Enriched media

d. Selective media

Q.31       Fecundation ab extra means

a. growth of the child outside the uterus

b. child born outside the marriage

c. child born out of previous marriage in case of second marriage

d. insemination occurring with penetration of the vagina by the penis

Q.32       In city with 10,000 population during a house to house screening  done over a weekend, 300 were found to be obese/overweight (BMI > 25). To express thee magnitude of the obesity/ overweight , precise term to used is :

a. Incidence

b. Prevalence

c. Occurrence

d. Burden

Q.33       All Indians planning to visit African countries are required to take following vaccine else face quarantine on return :

a. Tetanus toxoid

b. Yellow fever vaccine

c. H1N1 vaccine

d. Monkey fever vaccine

Q.34       A middle aged female reported with dull diffuse progressive head ache of 2 months duration associated with episodes of vomiting and blurred vision at times .Cough increase the head ache. Likely patient has

a. Vascular head ache

b. Intracranial space occupying lesion

c. Intracerebral haemorrhage

d. Acute phogenic meningitis

Q.35       Constellation  of neuropathy, muscle weakness and wasting , cardiomegaly , edema, ophthalmoplegia, confabulation strongly suggest

a. Cobalamine deficiency

b. Thiamine deficiency

c. Niacin deficiency

d. Riboflavin deficiency

Q.36       Crytore ipitate is a source contains following Except :

a. fibrinogen

b. Factor VII

c. Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

d. Albumin

Q.37       Gastric infection with the bacterium H. pylori are linked with following except :

a. accounts for the majority of peptic ulcer disease

b. Plays a role in the development of gastric mucosa- Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) lymphoma Tissue (MALT) lymphoma

c. plays a role in the development of gastric adenocarcinoma

d. plays a role in development of type 2 diabetes mellitus

Q.38       A normally growing child smiles back (social smile) at following age :

a. 2-4 weeks

b. 4-6 weeks

c. 6-8 weeks

d.  8-10 weeks

Q.39       If a patient complains of hearing voices when no one else is present, than he has :

a. Delusion

b. Hallucination

c. Delirium

d. Overvalued ideas

Q.40       Finger nails grow at the rate of

a. 1 cm per one month

b. 1 cm per to two month

c. 1 cm per three months

d. 1 cm per four months

Q.41       In ulcer over skin if there is undermined edges it suggests

a. Sysphillis

b. Tuberculosis

c. Cancerous ulcer

d. Venous ulcer

Q.42       Following are thyrotoxicosis signs Except :

a. Ifrequent blinking

b. Inability to converge the eye balls

c. Visible upper sclera on looking straight

d. Stridor on gently pressing lobes of thyroid

Q.43       Patient reports sharp shooting retrosternal pain progressing downward initially  between scapulae and later to epigastric region. On examination he has feeble lower limb pulse compared to upper limbs. This is highly suggestive of :

a. Coarctation of  aorta

b. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta

c. Peripheral vascular disease

d. Aorto arteritis

Q.44       Most common position of appendix is :

a. Pelvic

b. Retrocaecal

c. Preileal

d .Postileal

Q.45       Magnesium

a. is essential for efficient secretion and peripheral action of PTH

b. is essential for efficient secretion and peripheral action of calcitonin

c. is cofactor for Vit D in bone

d. Competitively occupies calcium slots in bone

Q.46       Epidural and intrathecal (Spinal ) anesthesia may cause following Except :

a. Vasodilatation and systemic hypotension

b. hypoventilation

c. unconsciousness

d. retention of urine

Q.47       Following statements are true with respect to Hennebert’s sign EXCEPT:

a. When fistula sign is positive with intact tympanic membrane

b. Fistula sing without fistula

c. It occurs in Meniere’s disease

d. It occurs in acoustic neuroma

Q.48       Causes of oligohydramnios include following EXCEPT :

a. Placental insufficiency

b. Rupture of membrane and leak of amniotic fluid

c. Dehydration or diuretics  in mother

d. Bilateral renal agenesis in foetus

Q.49       Late menopause in menstruation continued beyond 

a. 45 years

b. 48 years

c. 52 years

d. 56 years

Q.50       Uterine fibroid is :

a. Oestrogen dependent

b. Progesterone dependent

c. Dependent on both oestrogen and progesterone

d. Not hormone dependent

Q.51       Functions of integumentary   system includes following Except :

a. Boundary between internal environment

b. Mobility and postural balance

c. Temperature regulation and excretory function

d. Sensory interface between body and exterior

Q.52       Sphingomyelins are found in large quantities in following organ:

a. Brain and nervous tissue

b. Myocardium and blood vessel

c. Lung and airways

d. Liver and biliary tree

Q.53       Following drugs are effective in cases of pneumocystis jiroveci EXCEPT :

a. Pentamidine

b.  Trimethoprim- diaphone

c. Clinadamycin plus primaquine

d. Cefepime

Q.54       Pick The wrong statement with respect to red infarct:

a. Occur in arterial occlusion

b. occurs in loose tissue

c. occur in tissues with dual circulations

d. occur in tissues previously congested by sluggish venous outflow

Q.55       Formaldehyde gas sterilization is employed for :

a. Sterilizing heart lung machines

b. Glass materials

c. Paper and cloth

d. Fumigation of operation theater of ICUs

Q.56       Organophosphorus compounds are primarily

a. cholinesterase inhibitor

b. cholinesterase stimulants

c. adrenergic stimulants

d. dopaminergic inhibitors

Q.57       Following are tools of measurement to express disease magnitude :

a. Rate

b. Ratio

c. Proportions

d. Risk

Q.58       Oral polio vaccine is a

a. Toxoid

b. Live vaccine

c. Killed vaccine

d. Passive immunization

Q.59       A young man reports chest pain retrosternal, sharp over last few hours. Pain is not related to exertion  and relieved significantly on sitting and bending forward. Likely possibility is :

a. Angina pectoris

b. Acute pericarditis

c. Reflux esophagitis

d. Rib fracture

Q.60       Approximate sedentary person’s daily energy requirement is resting energy expenditure multiplied by :

a. 1.1

b. 1.2

c. 1.3

d. 1.4

Q.61       With respect to whole blood is stored at 4° C to maintain erythrocyte viability following statemtns are true except :

 a. Platelet dysfunction and degradation of some coagulation factor occurs

b. 2,3 – bisphosphoglycerate levis rise over time

c. Increase in the oxygen affinity of the hemoglobin and a decreased capacity to deliver oxygen to the tissues

d. It is indicated only in case of

Q.62       Pradder- willi syndrome is associated with following except :

a. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

b. hyperphagia- obesity

c. chronic muscle hypertonia

d. adult- onset diabetes mellitus

Q.63       A normal child will acquire complete neck control by :

a. 8 weeks

b. 16 weeks

c. 20 weeks

d. 24 weeks

Q.64       An otherwise healthy person admitted for management of acute febrile illness . During the course of the stay he became intensely restless, developed abnormal behavior  including visual hallucinations. Best term to explain his state will be :

 a. Psychosis

b. Delirium

c. Anxiety

d. Depression

Q.65       In a idiopathic chronic urticaria it is advisable to avoid

a. Aspirin

b. Pheneramine meleate

c. Fexofenadine

d. Cetirizine

Q.66       In a given case if skin over the swelling is fixed to the swelling following are the DDs except :

a. Sebaceous cyst

b. Lipoma

c. Papilloma

d. Epithelioma

Q.67       Troisier’s sign is :

a. Enlarged vertical inguinal lymph nodes

b. enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes

c. Swollen lowoer limb in phlebothrorombosis

d. Swollen limb due to lymphedema of malignancy

Q.68       Blumberg’s sign is :

a. Rebound tenderness during abdominal palpation

b. Board like rigidity of a abdomen

c. Pressure over left iliac fossa causing pain in right iliac fossa

d. Pressure over right iliac fossa causing pain in left iliac fossa

Q.69       Early dumping  consists of  following EXCEPT :

a. Abdominal and vasomotor symptoms found in about 5-10% of patient following gastrectomy or vasomotor and drainage

b. The small bowel is filled with foodstuffs from the stomach , which have a high osmotic load

c. This leads to the sequestration of fluid from the circulation into the gastrointestinal tract

d. This can be observed by the fall in the packed cell volume while the symptom are present 

Q.70       Following are types of osteochondritis EXCEPT :

a. Crushing

b. Puling

c. Pushing

d. Splitting

Q.71       Intravenous entry of local anesthetics may result in following except :

a. Depressed conscious level

b. tetany

c. Convulsions

d. cardiac arrest

Q.72       Gaze evoked amaurosis is :

a.  A normal physiological phenomenion

b. Always suggests orbital disease like optic nerve sheath meningioma

c. Indicates visual fatigue

d. Common after viewing television or movies for long hours

Q.73       In development of male foetus following statement are true except :

a. Gene on short are of Y chromosome directs testes development

b. During intrauterine life testes has no endocrine role in foetus

c. Around 8 weeks internal and external genitalia differentiates into male pattern

d. Antimullerian hormone inhibits development of mullerian system in male foetus

Q.74       Following are true with respect to Raloxifene except :

a. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modular

b. It has no major side effects like venous thrombosis

c. Reduces fracture risk by 50%

d. It reduces total and LDL cholesterol

Q.75       Following are proven interceptives  except :

a. Levonorgestrel (LNG) 0.75 mg PO  twice

b. RU 486 10 mg PO

c. Vaginal douching

d. Copper IUCD

Q.76       Homeostasis is body’s mechanisms

a. Meant to stop bleeding

b. For maintenance of  nearly constant condition in the internal environment

c. For maintenance of body posture

d. For maintenance of body blood pressure

Q.77       Following statement are true with respect to glycogen  except :

a. Principle storage of carbohydrate in the human body is glycogen

b. Liver and muscel are the main sites  of glycogen storage

c. Produced by glycogenesis

d. Insult amulates glycogenolysis

Q.78       Mycophenolate mofetil is used in :

 a. Prevention of organ transplantation rejection

b. Tuberculosis

c. Leprosy

d. Methanol poisoning

Q.79       French paradox is :

a. A one and food – loving French population with a low incidence of obesity and cardiovascular disease

b. In- spite of heave smoking lower incidence of bronchogenic carcinoma in frace

c. A physical fitness conscious French population still having higher incidence of cardiovascular disease

d. In – spite of high sugar intake in diet a lower incidence of obesity and type 2 DM

Q.80       Select the correct statement on spores of microbes

a. Spores are unique for fungus

b. Some bacteria for fungus

c. Spores are highly labile and sensitive to temperature and chemicals

d. Spores are method of reproduction for bacteria

Q.81       Scorpion venom is :

a. never fatal

b. less potent toxin than snake venom

c. a potent autonomic nervous system stimulator

d. a potent autonomic nervous system inhibitor

Q.82       If an intervention is started in the childhood to prevent obesity then it is best called as

a. Tertiary prevention

b. Primordial prevention

c. Secondary prevention

d. Primary prevention

Q.83       Droplet nuclei is typically sized

a. Less than 1 micron

b. 1-10 micron

c. 11-100 micron

d. > 101 micron

Q.84       In urban population per day per person total water requirement is :

a. 50-100 liters

b. 100 – 150 liters

c. 150 – 200 liters

d. 200-300 liters

Q.85       A young man reported with history of 6 kg weight loss 3 months and on examination found to have generalized lymph node enlargement . likely possibilities are following :

a. HIV AIDS

b. Lymphoma

c. Chronic malaria

d. Disseminated tuberculosis

Q.86       Following are common features in multiple myeloma except :

a. Body ache and pain

b. Elevated serum globulin

c. Renal failure

d. Hypocalcaemia

Q.87       The most common type of hereditary neuropathy

a. Charcot – Marie – Tooth (CMT) disease

b. Hereditary sensory autonomic neuropathy

c. Fabry disease

d. Refsum disease

Q.88       Following are common cause of short stature in a child except :

a. Familial

b. Under nutrition

c. Turners syndrome

d. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Q.89       A child with mild anemia and splenomegaly , on HPLC evaluation of Hb has absent HbA elevated HbF and elevated   HbA2 .

a. This rules out thalassemia

b. Child has beta thalassemia

c. Child has sickle cell disease

d. Child has beta thalassemia trait

Q.90       Following systemic agents are used in the management of psoriasis except :

 a. Methotrexate/ retinoids

b. Ciclosporin / mycophenolate

c.  Chloroquine / Hydroxychloroquine

d. Infliximab/ etanercept

Q.91       Cough impulses is likely when a swelling is in continuity with following except :

a. Abdominal cavity

b. Pleural cavity

c. Cranium or spinal canal

d. Hip or shoulder

Q.92       Mikulicz’s disease presents as

a. Enlargement of upper cervical lymph nodes

b. Enlargement of parotid, submandibular salivary and lacrimal gland

c. Systemic illness with dry mouth, joint pain and fever

d. Fever hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy

Q.93       Initial periumbilical  shifting to right iliac fossa is symptom suggestive of :

a. Abdominal worms

b. Mesenteric ischemia

c. Acute appendicitis

d. Right ureteric colic

Q.94       Select the wrong statement with respect to Cleft lip and palate:

a. Have possible genetic and environmental predisposition

b. Frequency varies among population groups

c. Cleft lip with palate is the most common combination

d. Antenatal diagnosis is not possible

Q.95       Following drugs/ chemicals are known to produce osteonecrosis except :

a. Glycocorticoids

b. Alcohol

c. Cytotoxic drugs

d. NSAIDS

Q.96       Sevoflurate is a :   

a. Is used in Total intravenous Anesthesia

b. Inhaled general anesthetic agent

c. Ingested painkiller

d. Transdermal  analgesic

Q.97       In low grade anisometropia (<2 .5d="" p="">

a. Eye strain symptoms are common

b. Perfect binocular vision is possible without eye strain

c. Uniocular vision develop

d. Amblyopia  may develop

Q.98       Spinbarkeit means

a. Just after menstrual bleeding thick minimal secretion closing the cervix

b. After ovulation change in nature of cervical mucus

c. Copious amounts of thin cervical secretion with its threadability just before ovulation

d. Physiological leucorrhoea

Q.99       Diagnosis or preeclampsia is suspected with following except :

a. Blood pressure Is 140/90 or more

b. Increased urinary protein of more than 0.3 gm/l

c. Elevated urea / creatinine / uric acid

d. Pedal oedema

Q.100    Following are uses of intra uterine contraceptive devices EXCEPT :

 a. As a contraceptive

b. In management of menorrhagia (Mirena)

c. In management of pelvic inflammatory disease

d. Post coital contraception

Q.101    Select the statement not true with respect to transverse thoracic plane

a. Is the demarcation plane between superior and inferior mediastinum

b. Passes anteriorly from sterna angle to posteriorly T4 disc

c. Is an important anatomical and radiological marking

d. Passes through the cardiac chambers in normal subjects

Q.102    Following are true with respect to citric acid cycle except :

a. It is the final pathway for oxidation of carbohydrate , lipids and proteins

b. It takes place in the mitochondria

c. It is amphibolic having role in gluconeogenesis , fatty acid synthesis and amino acid inter conversion

d. Vitamin B₁₂ is essential for citric acid cycle

Q.103    Misoprostol   is used in prevention of

a. Migraine

b. NSAID induced peptic ulcer

c. Alcoholic hepatitis

d. PCOd

Q.104    NNK, NNN and polonium 210 are carcinogen specific for :

a. tobacco related oral cancer

b. tobacco related bronchogenic carcinoma

c. prostatic carcinoma

d. hepatocellular carcinoma

Q.105    Length of most of the bacteria of medical importance are about

a. 0.5-1 micron

b. 1-3 micron

c. 3-5 micron     

 d. 5-10 micron

Q.106    Treatment of human brucellosis includes following except :

a. Rifampicin

b. Azithromycin

c. Streptomycin/ gentamicin

d. Doxycycline

Q.107    In Iceberg phenomenon of a disease , water line demarcates :

a. Apparent and inapparent cases

b. Live and dead patient

c. Infective and non- infective patients

d. Treated and untreated cases

Q.108    Reservoir for typhoid fever infection is :

a. A case of typhoid

b. Stool

c. Contaminated water

d. Domestic fly

Q.109    Acceptable noise level at residential living room is less than

a. 20 dB

b. 40 dB

c. 60 dB

d. 80 dB

Q.110    In an anaemic patient with low reticulocyte count suggests following possibilities EXCEPT :

a. Aplastic anemia

b. Vit. B₁₂ deficiency

c. Thalassemia minor

d. Pure red cell aplasia

Q.111    Which of the following has least impact on life expectancy since point of diagnosis :

a. Chronic myeloid leukemia

b. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia

c. Acute myeloid

d. Acute lymphoid leukaemia

Q.112    Commonest cause of acute folliculitis ( hair follicle infection ) is

a. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Beta hemolytic streptococcus

c. Proplonbacterium acnes

d. Streptococcus viridians

Q.113    Mean head circumference at birth is:

a. 33 – 35 cms

b. 38 – 40 cms

c. 42-45 cms

d. 48-51 cms

Q.114    If mother is HBsAg positive then new born should be given :

a. Hepatitis  vaccine at 6 weeks

b. Hepatitis vaccine at birth

c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin with 24 hours of birth

d. Hepatitis B Vaccine at birth and immunoglobulin  with in 24 hours at separate site

Q.115    Following is example for very potent topical glucocorticoid

a. Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% (Eumovate)

b. Betamethasone 0.025% ( Betnovate RD)

c. 0.5%, 1%, 2.5% hydrocortisone

d. Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate)

Q.116    A midan caused parson is rushed to emergency department with history of loss of motor power cn left upper and lower limb since last 30 minutes. Imaging modality of choice to plan appropriate treatment will be

a. CT scan of the head

b. MRI of the brain 

c. Carotid Doppler study

d. EEG

Q.117    In general commonest haemorrhage following head injury is :

a. Subcortical

b. Extradural

c. Subdural

d. Intraventricular

Q.118    Dysphagia lusoria means dysphagia

a. for very cold items

b. due to abdominal origin and course of high subclavian artery

c. atresia of oesophagus

d. benign stricture of oesophagus

Q.119    Surgical blade number useful for arteriotomy is :

a. 10

b. 11

c.  15

 d. 22

Q.120    Pseudoparesis is :

a. hysterical weakness

b. hypokalaemia with weakness

c. a child with septic arthritis reluctant to move the limb

d. malingering involving limb weakness

Q.121    In management of the fracture neck femur

a. Operative treatment ins mandatory irrespective of age

b. Conservative or operative management outcome are similar

c. Operative management for young and fit

d. Operative management for old

Q.122    In very high myopia (short sight) it advisable to

a. Wear spectacles for far vision only

b. Wear spectacles continuously during wakeful hour

c. Remove spectacles while reading or work on nearby object spectacle can be removed

d. Whether spectacle is worn or not during near vision no change in long term outcome with respect to binocular vision

Q.123    Following statements on Corpus luteum are true Except :

a. It is the source of progesterone in post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle

b. Its function depends on continued LH production

c. It regress to from corpus albicans

d. It has no role to play once conception has occurred

Q.124    A young married female brought to emergency department with lower abdominal pain and severe dizziness and two episodes of syncope since last 12 hours. Blood pressure on arrival was 80/40 mm Hg and standing BP was not recordable and patient had near syncope on sitting position. Likely diagnosis you would to rule out is :

a. Acute appendicitis

b. Torsion ovaries

c. Acute pancreatitis

d. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Q.125    Infertility implies

a. Apparent failure of the couple to conceive

b. Absolute inability to conceive

c. Difficulty  to perform

d. Difficulty to have an erection

Q.126    Lambda is the junction between

a. Occipital and frontal bones

b. Frontal and temporal bones

c. Parietal and occipital bones

d. Frontal and parietal bones

Q.127    Following are true with respect to Menkes disease Except :

a. It is characterized by kinky hair

b. Growth retardation

c. Dietary deficiency of zinc

d. Lysyt oxidase enzyme deficiency resulting in weak collagen fibro

Q.128    Bosentan is a:

a. Animetabolite agent

b. Antiosteporotic agent

c. Anglotensin receptor blocker

d. Endothelin antagonist

Q.129    Family of Toll- Like receptor (TLRs) are

a. Most important for oncogene activation by virus and plays important role in cancer

b. Essential for glucose homeostasis

c. Most important for entry of retrovirus into the immune cells

d. Most important receptors for microbial products to initiate acute inflammation

Q.130    Following statement are true on dark ground microscopy except :

a. Suitable for slender organisms like spirochetes

b. Dark field condenser with a central circular stop used to illuminate the object

c. Light falling on the object with a dark background reflect and objects appear self- luminous

d. Transmitted light is used to illuminate the object

Q.131    Haemophilus influenza causes following syndromes in humans except :

a. Pneumonia

b. Croup

c. Meningitis

d. Urinary infection

Q.132    Epidemiological triad is formed by following except :

a. Environment

b. Agent

c. Host

d. Socio- economic status

Q.133    The correct statement on the term epidemic is :

a. Specifically used for infective diseases

b. Specifically used for non- communicable disease

c. Unusually high occurrence of disease / health related issue in a population

d. Always used for acute/ dramatic occurrences

Q.134    Reliable test of adequate pasteurization of milk is :

a. Taste

b. Small

c. Coliform count of zero in 1 ml of milk

d. Coliform count of upto 100 per ml of milk

Q.135    The presence of scleral  icterus indicates a minimum serum bilirubin of :

a. 1 mg/ dl

b. 2 mg/dl

c. 3 mg/dl

d. 4 mg/dl

Q.136    Following investigation are required in initial evaluation of a chronic myeloid leukaemia patient except :

a. Peripheral smear

b. Test for Philadelphia chromosome

c. Bone marrow testing

d. HLA typing

Q.137    Dabigatran etexilate is a

a. oral antiepileptic

b. oral thrombin inhibitor

c. oral anti-parkinsonism agent

d. oral hypoglycaemic agent

Q.138    Following statement are true in diastolic dysfunction of the left ventricles EXCEPT :

a. It presents as dyspnoea on exertion

b. Tachycardia will improve the symptoms

c. Uncontrolled hypertension is an important cause

d. Ischaemic heart disease

Q.139    Case of proven vitamin A deficiency in  a child who has clouding of cornea of cornea is treated with:

a. Oral vitamin A tablets 100 IU /day

b. Oral syrup of vitamin A single dose 1,000 IU/ day

c. IM injection vitamin A 5,000 IU once

d. IM injection vitamin A 50, 000 IU once

Q.140    In the presence of a focal lesion causing itch, touch on the surrounding areas may be conducted along non- itch fibres but be centrally reinterpreted as itch . This is called as :

a. Alloknesis

b. Pruritis

c. Allodynia

d. Psychogenic itching

Q.141    In a knee joint X- ray taken in standing position demonstration of joint space narrowing indicates :

a. Osteoarthritis

b. Artificial knee joint

c. Septic arthritis

d. Osteomalacia

Q.142    Consistency of mass of osteosarcoma is

a. Eggs shell crackling feeling

b. Firm to hard

c. Soft to Firm        

d. Variable consistency on various part

Q.143    Clinical stage II of carcinoma breast means

a. Tumor is limited to breast

b. Tumor with evidence of distance metastasis

c. Tumor is present in the breast and axially lymph nodes are involved

d. Tumor has involved breast pectoral muscles and wide area of skin

Q.144    Male with history of bilateral undescended testis

a. Is likely going to be sterile

b. Risk of testicular neoplasm is same as other males

c. Pathophysiology is merely mechanical problem in descent of testis

d. Intervention for psychological purpose is not a requremnt :

Q.145    Sequestra is typical feature of :

a. Acute osteomyelitis

b. Chronic osteomyelitis

c. Septic arthritis

d. Osteoarthritis

Q.146    Likely cause of multidirectional shoulder instability is due to :

a. Trauma

b. Lax ligaments or muscles

c. Seizure

d. Emotional distrubace

Q.147    Micropsia is seen in :

a. Visual cortex lesions

b. Retinal lesions

c. Leas pathology

d. Corneal pathology

Q.148    Dysoosis means

a. Depression with abnormal somnolence

b. Functional weakness of voice in presence of normal organ

c. Functional weakness of right upper limb

d. Functional numbness of one side of the body

Q.149    Following statement on non stress test are true except :

a. Beat to beat heart rate variability indicates foetal distress

b. Foetal movements accelerates the heart rate in a healthy foetus

c. Usual NST observation session lasts 20 minutes

d. It can be repeated at weekly intervals or more frequently based on need

Q.150    A Q tip cotton swab test is performed In suspected case of :

a. Sexual assault

b. Genuine stress incontinence

c. Prolapse of uterus

s. Fallopian tube block

Q.151    Skin immediately around the umbilicus is supplied by :

a. Anterior cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 10

b. Lateral cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 10

c. Anterior cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 12

d. Lateral cutaneous branches of thoracoabdominal nerve T 12 

Q.152    Very low activity of adenosine deaminase in sample of red cells and high levels of dATP is consistent  with diagnosis of :

a. Organophosphorus poisoning

b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

c. Cyanide poisoning

d. Acquired immunodeficiency disease

Q.153    Aliskiren is:

a. Antihistaminic

b. Beta blocker

c. Renin inhibitor

d. Antipsychotic

Q.154    Following statement are correct on apoptosis except :

a. Apopposis means programmed cell death

b. Apoptosis is always pathological

c. Apoptosis can be triggered by virus

d. DNA oamage can trigger apoptosis

Q.155    The single most important factor in cervical oncogenesis is

a. Age at first sexual intercourse

b. Poor socioeconomic status

c. Number of children delivered

d. HPV 16 of HPB 18 infection

Q.156    Usual culture media used to grow diphtheria bacillus is :

a. Loffler’s serum slope

b. Egg media

c. Wilson Blair medium

d. McLeod’s medium

Q.157    Crude death rate means

a. Number of death per 100 population per year in a given community

b. Number of death per 1,000 population per year in a given community

c. Number of death per 10,000 population per year in a given community

d. Number of death per 100,000 population per year in a given community

Q.158    A study showed perinatal mortality of 20 per 1000 birth in a tertiary care hospital and 5 per 1000 births in a cluster of primary health centers. Concluding immediately that PHC delivery are safer than tertiary care hospital  care hospital is :

a. Direct association

b. Spurious association

c. Indirect association

d. Causal association

Q.159    In case of Kyasanur Forest disease (KFD) main reservoir of the Virus are

a. Monkeys

b. Rats and squirrels

c. Birds and bats

d. Humans

Q.160    For development of alveolar PO₂ of 60 mmHg and high altitude illness to develop in an otherwise healthy person from sea , level , rapid ascent to following height is required :

a. 2000 meters

b. 3000 meters

c. 4000 meters

d. 5000 meters

Q.161    During the course of evaluation of a case of polycythemia following investigation may be required to establish the cause EXCEPT :

a. Erythropoietin level

b. Arterial blood gas analysis

c. Bone marrow examination

d. Serum iron profile

Q.162    Primary abnormality in sequence of event leading to DIC is :

a. Fibrin deposits in multiple sites

b. Uncontrolled thrombin generation

c. Abnormal adhesion and consumption of platelets

d. Destruction of red cells   

Q.163    Following are risk factors for contrast nephropathy EXCEPT :

a. Metformin

b. Dehydration

c. NSAIDs

d. Hall normal saline

Q.164    Following statements are true with respect to a child with marasmus Except :

a. It is a severely wasted and has ‘skin and bone’ monkey facies

b. Child appears alert and active

c. Child is more prone for infection and has higher mortality compared to kwashiorkor

d. Appetite is good

Q.165    Following are features of diazepam withdrawal syndrome EXCEPT :

a. Anxiety

b. Hallucinations

c. Epileptic seizures

d. Increased sleep

Q.166    Purely for diagnostic purpose preferred mode of visualizing biliary tree will be

a. Endoscopic Retrograde cholangio pancreaticogram (ERCP)

b. Percutaneous Transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC)

c. Magnetic Resonance cholangio pancroaticogram (MRCP )

d. CT angiogram

Q.167    Trigger finger is :

a. Common among police and soldiers due to excess use of finger over trigger

b. Due to little thickening of flexor sheath of the tendon

c. Due to little thickening of extensor sheath of the tendon

d. Due to median nerve damage

Q.168    Following statement are true with respect to ‘ discharge of blood from nipple’ EXCEPT :

a. It is occasionally normal

b. Suggests duct papilloma

c. Suggests carcinoma breast

d. Always needs further evaluation

Q.169    Inguinal hernia in children is :

a. Almost always indirect

b. almost always direct

c. chance of direct and indirect are almost same

d. impossible

Q.170    Dieulafoy’s disease is :

a. Essentially features of portal gastropathy

b. essentially a gastric arterial venous malformation and that has a characteristic histological appearance

c. Essentially oesophageal varices

d. cherry red spot seen in portal

Q.171    Mucopolysacchridoses is characterized by following except :

a. Mental retardation

b. Normal bone and joints

c. Hepatosplenomegaly

d. Lysosomal enzyme deficiency

Q.172    Colored halos are seen in the following condition except :

a. Acute angle closure glaucoma

b. Cataracts

c. Corneal oedema

d. Retro bulbar neuritis

Q.173    Stewart’s granuloma is :

a. Chronic inflammatory granuloma

b. Chronic vasculitis granuloma

c. A type of sinonasal lymphoma

d. A type of fungal granuloma

Q.174    During pregnancy female with normal body mass index will gain :

a. 3-6 kgs

b. 6-10 kgs

c. 11-16 kgs

d. 17-20 kgs

Q.175    True incontinence of urine in female is caused by :

a. Threadworm infestation and nocturnal incontinence in young girls

b. Prolapse of the anterior vaginal wall

c. Vesicovaginal fistula

d. Cystitis

Q.176    Superior thoracic aperture is bounded by following except :

a. T1 vertebra

c. 1^st pair of ribs and their costal cartilage

c. Superior border of the manubrium

d. Xiphoid process

Q.177    Following organ / tissue have proven endocrine function/ capability except:

a. Heart

b. Adipocytes

c. Stomach

d. Salivary gland

Q.178    Metolazone is a

a. Antidepressant

b. Thiazide diuretic

c. Sympathomimetic agent

d. Anxiolytic agent

Q.179    Following statement are true with respect to hyperplasia EXCEPT :

a. Increase in cell size and number is hyperplasia

b. Increase in cell number is hyperplasia

c. Hyperplasia is not cancer

d. Hyperplasia may predispose to cancer

Q.180    Wiskott- Aldrich syndrome is a

a. X-linked recessive disease

b. X- linked dominant disease

c. Autosomal dominant disease

d. Autosomal recessive disease

Q.181    Following are true with respect to genus neisseria EXCEPT :

a. Gram negative

b. Anaerobic

c. Nonsporulating

d. Oxidase positive coccl

Q.182    Most of the aircraft accidents  occurs

a. during take off

b. In mid air

c. during landing

d. as act of terror

Q.183    Strength evidence is strongest if it is supported by :

a. Case reports

b. Retrospective study

c. Non randomized controlled trials

d. Randomized controlled trials

Q.184    DOTS stand for :

a. Daily oral therapy short course (for TB)

b. Directly observed Therapy short cause

c. Drugs of Tuberculosis short course

d. Drugs of Tuberculosis supplied (free )

Q.185    Chronic cough means cough as a symptoms for

a. > 4 weeks

b. > 8 weeks

c. > 12 weeks

d. > 16 weeks

Q.186    What is the total body iron content on an average in a 80 kg male :

a. 2000 mgs

b. 3000 mgs

c. 4000 mgs

d. 5000 mgs

Q.187    The major regulator of platelet production is the hormone Thrombopoletin (TPO) is produced by :

a. Kidney

b. Liver

c. Endothelium

d. Spleen and lymph nodes

Q.188    Select the wrong statement with respect to the variable required to calculate the MELD score :

a. The prothrombin time expressed as international normalized Ratio (INR)

b. Serum albumin

c. Serum bilirubin

d. Serum creatinine

Q.189    To diagnose ADHD in a child fulfilling the criteria following are must except :

a. Behaviour  must start before the age of 7 years

b. Present for at least 6 month

c. Pervasive ( present in at 2 different setting ) and impair child ability to function normally

d. symptom can be secondary to some other disorders

Q.190    A young man who survived unharmed in Mumbai terror attack developed fearfulness, insomnia and lack of concentration after few months. He is likely to have

a. Anxiety state

b. Post traumatic stress disorder

c. Acute stress reaction

d. Adjustment disorder

Q.191    Important radiological features suggesting rotation or otherwise of a chest X- ray PA view is :

a. Symmetry of the chest shadow

b. Tracheal shadow over vertebrae

c. Clavicular heads symmetrical on either side of spine

d. Spine acromion distance

Q.192    Adson’s test is elicited in a suspected case of :

a. Congenital dislocation of hip

b. Cervical rib

c. Subluxation of shoulder

d. Direct inguinal hernia

Q.193    Multiple sinuses and induration of chest wall is likely due to :

a. Tuberculosis

b. Atypical mycobacterial infection

c. HIV – AIDS patient with tuberculosis

d. Pulmonary actinomycosis

Q.194    Following are basic rules for wound closure except :

a. Wound edges should be left slightly gaping to allow swelling

b. Edges should be inverted

c. The knot should be placed to one side of the wound

d. Knots must be secure , with the ends long enough to grasp when removing the suture

Q.195    Following nutritional consequences are possible following peptic ulcer surgeries other than vagotomy :

a. Iron deficiency

b. Weight loss

c. Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency

d. Folic acid deficiency

Q.196    Following can lead to osteomalacia except :

a. Dietary deficiency

b. Calcium deficiency in diet

c. Gastrectomy

d. Lack of exposure to sunlight

Q.197    Vecuronium is a :

a. Hypnotic

b. muscle relaxant

c. analgesic

d. sedative

Q.198    Aural myiasis means

a. impaired hearing of whispered voice

b. presence of maggots in the ear

c. presence of fungal infection in the ear

d. Presence of deafness for high pitched sounds

Q.199    Commonest presentation of foetus during labour is

a. Occipitoposterior

b. Left occipitotransverse

c. Right occipitotransverse

d. Breech

Q.200    Risk of perinatal transmission of HIV from mother to child with use of anti-retroviral drugs in mother during pregnancy and labour is :

a. 30 %

b. 10 %

c. 5%

d. 2 %