UPSC paper-2 booklet D 2013

1.          The treatment of. choice for congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is :
a.           Heller's operation
b.          Duodenojejunostomy
c.           Ramstedt's operation
d.          Gastrojejunostomy
2.          Carcinoma of pyriform fossa usually presents with :
a.        Cough
b.       Hoarseness
c.        Lump in the neck
d.       Dysphagia
3.          Pelvic abscess can present with all symptoms except :
a.           Fever
b.          pain abdomen
c.           bleeding rectum
d.          diarrhea with mucus discharge
4.          Femoral hernias are more common in females because :
a.           femoral canal is long
b.          femoral canal is wide
c.          foments of femoral canal neck are weak
d.         weakness of post Inguinal wall
5.          The most common ocular lesion peculiar to HIV infection in early stage is :
a.           Soft exudates in retina
b.          Retinal haemorrhages.
c.           Retinal necrosis Kaposi's sarcoma
d.          Kaposi’s Sarcoma
6.          Consider the following statements in respect of prostatic carcinoma :
1.          Most originate from peripheral zone
2.          Prostatic needle biopsy is better performed under trans rectal ultrasound
3.          Prostate specific antigen is the specific test
4.          L.H.R.H. analogues are used as medical treatment for metastatic disease
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ? .
a.       1 and 2 only
b.              2, 3 and 4
d.             1 and 3
e.           (d)' 1,2 and 4
7.             Regarding varicocele, all of the                        following    are true except:
a.           Varicosity of cremasteric veins
b.          Left side is affected usually
c.           Feels like a bag of worms
d.          May lead to infertility
                 8.       The commonest complication of                                             fracture of clavicle is :
a.         malunion
b.         non union
c.         a vascular necrosis
d.         Neurovascular injury
9.          The most frequent complication of fracture pelvis is injury to :
a.       penile urethra
b.       membranous urethra
c.        urinary bladder
d.       rectum.

10.        Burns involving the head and neck region are particularly dangerous because :
a.        Face is a very vascular area
b.       There may be thermal damage to the respiratory passage
c.        Renal failure is more frequent
d.       Blood loss may be more severe
11.        Pregnancy is characterized by the following physiological changes except :
a. Delayed gastric emptying time
b. Dilatation of ureters
c.   Decreased glomerular filtration rate
d. Increased tidal volume

12.           Donovan bodies are associated with :
a.    Gonorrhoea
b.    Herpes genitalis
c.     Chlamydia trachomatis infection
d.    Granuloma inguinale

13.         During pregnancy, vaccination can be given against all these diseases except:
a.           Hepatitis A
b.           Tetanus
c.            Mumps
d.            Hepatitis B
14.           What is the likely cause of primary                 amenorrhoea together with retention of         urine in an adolescent girl ?
a.          Turner's syndrome
b.          Adrenal hyperplasia
c.            Haematocolpos
d.          Testicular Feminizing syndrome
15.   Histological type of endometrium that     is suggestive of ovulation is
a.        proliferative phase
b.         secretory phase
c.        cystic glandular hyperplasia
d.           adenomatous hyperplasia
16.       The ferning of cervical mucous is due to the high concentration of :
a.       Sodium chloride .
b.       Potassium chloride
c.        Sodium bicarbonate
d.       Potassium bicarbonate
17.       A pregnant woman in IIIrd trimester has normal blood pressure in the arms when standing and sitting but drops to 90/50 when lying down. What is the likely cause ? .
a. Compression of uterine artery
b.  Compression of aorta
c.  Compression of inferior vena cava
d.                        Compression of internal iliac artery

18.    Which one of the following statements is      not  correct about foetal circulation ?
a. Umbilical artery carries oxygenated                blood to the fetus
a. Umbilical vein carries oxygenated
    blood to the fetus
b.  Umbilical artery carries deoxygenated
             fetal blood to the placenta
d   Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical                      vein traverse through umbilical cord               between the fetus and placenta

19.        Which of the following is a contra­indication for breast feeding ?
a.    Maternal diarrhea
b.    1st 24 hours after Caesarean section
c.      Maternal tuberculosis
d.     None of the above
20.            Meconium aspiration syndrome can be         prevented by taking the following    measures except :
a.       Amnioinfusiont
b.       Oropharyngeal suctioning
c.        Suctioning of trachea through                                laryngo­scope
d.       Delivering the baby by
        emergency caesarean section
21.       A 15-year old unmarried girl comes with
 history of dysmenorrhea. Age of menarche is 12 years. Per abdominal and per rectum examination reveal nothing abnormal. You will treat the patient with :          a.   Antibiotics
b.  Hormones
c. Reassurance and giving antispasmodics                         throughout the month .
d.  Regssurance and giving                                                    antispasmodics  during menses
22.  A pregnant lady with 37 weeks gestation            has been admitted with history of    premature rupture of membranes for 6             hours. She is best treated with :
a.      steroids followed by labour induction
b.      steroids and antibiotics
c.       steroids and tocolytic agents
d.      antibiotics followed by labour inductions
23.    Use of ventose is preferred over forceps in the delivery of :
             a.  occipito posterior position
             b.  after coming head in breech
             c. face presentation
         d.foetal distress
24.    Normal pH of foetal scalp blood is :
a.    7.0
b.    7.10
c.     7.20               
d.    7.30
25.    Face to pubis delivery is common in which type of pelvis ?
      a.  Android
       b. Gynaecoi
       c. Anthropoid
    d.  Platypelloid
26.    The following are the signs of placental separation except :
                      a.   The uterus becomes hard and globular
                      b.   Permanent lengthening of the cord v
                       c.   The fundal height decreases
                      d.   Fresh bleeding occurs
27.    The following conditions are associated with molar pregnancy except :
                   a.  Pregnancy induced hypertension
                   b.  Thyrotoxicosis
                    c.    Gestational diabetes
                   d.    Hyperemesis gravidarum
28.    What is the commonest cause of retention of urine at 12-14 weeks of pregnancy ? a.
      a. Impacted pelvic tumour
b.Retroverted gravid uterus
c. Diminished bladder tone
d. Prolapse of uterus

29. Which of the following is a uterine compression suture during management of atonic post partum haemorrhage ?
(a)        Sturmdorf suture
(b)        B-Lynch suture
(c)        Fothergill's suture
(d)       Moscowitz suture
29.    Which of the following anti-hypertensive
drugs is/are best avoided during pregnancy ?
(a)    Labetalol
(b)       Nifedipine
(c)        Alpha methyl dopa
(d)   Angiotensin converting enzyme                      inhibitors
   31.     The hormone Relaxin of pregnancy is secreted by :
           (a)     Vagina
           (b)    Ovary
(c)        Fallopian tube
(d)       Pituitary gland
 32. Complications of heparin therapy in pregnancy include all except
      (a)     Thrombocytopaenia
      (b)     Osteoporosis
      (c)     Bleeding
      (d)     Teratogenicity
33.  Misoprostol can be used during, pregnancy  
       by the following routes except :
         (a)    Intravenous .
         (b)    Oral .
         (c)    Vaginal
         (d)   Sub-lingual
34.Following are the contraindications for laparoscopic female sterilization except:
 (a) Heart disease
 (b) Obesity
   (c) Respiratory dysfunction ,
   (d) Hiatus hernia
35.  Mifepristone used for inducing abortion acts on
(a)    Hypothalamopituitary ovarian axis
(b)   Uterine contractility
(c)     Progesterone receptors
(d)    AH the above
36. A man underwent vasectomy, but 6 months later his wife was 16 week pregnant. What is the most likely cause ?
(a)        Failure of operative procedure
(b)       Pregnancy antedating vasectomy
(c)         Recanalisation of vas
(d)      Failure to use additional contraception in postoperative period
37. Which method of vasectomy has the highest      failure rate ?
       (a) Open ended vasectomy with granulation                        formation
      (b)  Cutting and ligating vas to occlude the                             proximal and distal lumen
      (c)  Use of hemoclips with 1-4 cm gap after             cutting proximal and distal ends
      (d)  Cutting the vas and turning the ends                backwards and ligating with suture material

(38) All of the following are eligibility criteria for female sterilization except :
(a)        Client's age should not be less than
22 years or more than 49 years
(b)       Client should be married
            (c)    Client or her spouse must not have                             undergone sterilisation in the past
 (d) At least two living children should be         present  
(39.) During the first 6 months of the gestation, which amongst the following contraceptives is not advisable ?
(a)       DMPA
(b)     Combined oral contraceptive pills
(c)        Progestin only pills
(d)      Norplant
(40.) Oral contraceptives may provide protection against the following malignancies except
1.         Cervical cancer
2.          Endometrial cancer
3.          Ovarian cancer
Select the correct answer using the code „        given  below :
 (a)   1  only
(b)      2 and  (c)  3 only
(d) 1 and  3
(41.) The following drugs are effective in the management of menorrhagia except :
(a)       Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory            drugs
(b)     Progestational agents
(c)     Prostaglandins
(d)   Anti-fibrinolytic drugs
(42) Out of the following, select the histologic type of cancer endometrium which has the
           worst prognosis :
(a)        Mucinous adeno carcinoma
(b)       Well differentiated endometrioid adeno carcinoma
(c)        Clear cell carcinoma
(c)         Papillary serous carcinoma
     (43) What is the commonest cause of Vulvo­           vaginal Fistula in developing countries ?
              (a) Radiotherapy for treatment of
                     carcinoma cervix
             (b)   Obstructed labour
(c)        Injury during hysterectomy
(b)       Carcinoma of bladder
(44)A 28-year old woman comes with infertility. Husband's semen analysis is normal. Endometrial biopsy shows secretary changes with no evidence of tuberculosis. On hysterosalpingography both tubes show tubal blockage. What should be the next step in management ?
(a)        Tuboplasty
(b)      Diagnostic laparoscopy and chromo- pertubation
(c)        IVF
(d)       ICSI
     (45)    Which of the following statements true         for  maternal rubella infection ?
                (a) It leads to abortions before 16 weeks
                      of  gestation
(b)       24% incidence of congenital infection if acquired during the last month of pregnancy
(c)        It causes blindness with recurrent infection
(d)       The primary infection is responsible for birth defects

46. Contraindications for medical abortions are all except :
        (a)    Age more than 35 years
(b)       Hemoglobin less than 8 gm%
(c)        Undiagonised adnexal mass
(d)       Uncontrolled seizure disorder
47  In an Rh negative mother who has delivered an Rh positive baby, prophylactic
        anti-D is indicated :
(a)        As a routine procedure in all cases
(b)       If indirect Coombs' test is positive
(c)        If indirect Coombs' test is negative
(d)   If direct Coombs' test is positive
48.          A woman dies from a heart disease six           days  after delivery. This would come             under      the category of :
(a)        Unclassified death
(b)       Indirect maternal death
(c)        Direct maternal death
(d)  Medical (non-maternal) death
49.        In a woman using an intrauterine                   contraceptive device (IUCD) an       intrauterine 1 pregnancy occurs and the              IUCD threads are visible. What is the              reason to recommend removal of the             device ?
        (a) To prevent the risk of subsequent                       septic abortion and preterm labour
(b)       To prevent congenital abnormality of the newborn
(c)        To prevent post partum haemorrhage
(d)       To prevent perforation
50 Success of tubal re-canalization is best  with:
(a)   Pomeroy's technique
(b)   laparoscopic ring application
(c)        Fimbriectomy
(e)        Uchida's technique
51.      The amount of previously unrecognized disease that is diagnosed as a result of the screening effort is known as :
(a)        Predictive accuracy
(b)       Reliability
(c)        Yield
(d)       Validity
52.      The total osmolarity of new oral rehydration solution formulation is :
(a)    210 mmol/litre
(b)   245 mmol/litre
(c)        255 mmol/litre
(d)       300 mmol/litre
53.      Which one of the following is not consistent with Aedes egypii's life cycle ?
(a)      Breeds in artificial collection of water
(b)       Eggs are boat shaped
(c)        Larva has siphon tube
(d)       Wings unspotted in the adult
54.      The National Health Policy 2002 target to be achieved by the year 2010 is :
(a)        Eradication of polio and yaws
(b)       Elimination of leprosy
(c)      Achieve zero level growth of HIV/ AIDS
         (d)   Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000
                          live births

55. One of the following is not a characteristic of causal association :
(a)             Coherence
(b)            Specificity
(c)             Sensitivity
(d) Biological plausibility
56.           Discarded tablets are disposed off in :
(a)             Yellow plastic bag
(b)            Red plastic bag
(c)             Blue plastic bag '
(d)            Black plastic bag
57.           In a village of 5,000 population, 50 persons suffered from cholera and 10 persons died.
What will be the case fatality ratio ?
(a) 0.2%
(b)            1.0%
(c)             5.0%
(d)            20.0%
58.           One of the following diseases has more than one route of transmission :
(a)  Influenza
(b)            Leprosy
(c)             Qhplera

(d)            Typhoid fever
59.           Serial interval is the gap between :
(a) Primary and secondary case
(b)            Index and primary case
(c)             Introduction of infection and development of maximum infectivity
(d)            Transmission of infection from patient to another susceptible host

60.           The best indicator for a potential explosive- ness of plague outbreak is :
(a)             Total flea index
(b)            Cheopis index                                  
(c)              Specific percentage of fleas
(d)            Burrow index
61.           Tuberculous pericarditis is included in which, treatment category of DOTS strategy?
(a)             Category I
(b)            Category II
(c)                  Category III
(d)                 Category IV
62.           Vision 2020 India includes all of the following except :
(a)              Refractive errors
(b)            Cataract
(c)             Glaucoma
(d)       Epidemic conjunctivitis
63.           The most sensitive index for surveillance of malaria transmission is :
(a)              Spleen rate
(b)            Parasite density index
(c)              Infant parasite rate
(d)            Proportional case rate
64.           Chandler's index is used in :
(a)              Cholera
(b)             Typhoid
(c)                      Round worm infestation
(d)                     Hook worm infestation
65.     Integrated management of neonatal and childhood illness includes all except :
(a)        Malaria
(b)       Pneumonia
(c)        Diarrhoea
(d)       Tuberculosis
66.     Toxic shock syndrome occurs after one of the following vaccinations :
(a)        DPT
(b)        Recombinant DNA Vaccine againsHepatitis B
(c)        Oral polio vaccine
(d)        Measles vaccine
67.     The health indicatorobtained by dividing height by cube root of weight is :
(a)         Quetelet's index
(b)        Brocca index
(c)         Corpulence index
(d)        Ponderal index
68.     What is the method of sampling in which the units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe ?
(a)      Simple random sampling
(b)     Systematic random sampling
(c)        Stratified random sampling
(d)        Snow-ball sampling
69.     Child starts speaking short sentences by the age of:
(a)         12 months
(b)        15 months
(c)         24 months
        (d) 36 months

70.      A village has a total of 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in these age groups is 60%. Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty six children developed measles later. The secondary attack rate of measles is :
(a)        16.6%
(b)       26.0%
(c)        65.0%
(d)     66.6%
71.      The method of choice for purification of highly polluted water on a large scale is :
(a)    Boiling and chlorination
(b)      Chlorination only
(c)      Super-chlorination followed by de­chlorination
(d)       Ultraviolet light treatment
72.      Dehydration is not a feature of one of the following diseases :
(a)        Cerebral malaria
(b)         Pertussis
(c)           Cholera
(d)           MDR-TB
73.      The useful fertility indicator where birth registration statistics do not exist or are inadequate is :
(a)      Abortion rate
(b)      Child-woman ratio
(c)       Male-female ratio
(d)      Net reproduction rate

74.      The Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) lost due to neuropsychiatry disorders is highest in :
(a)          Bipolar affective disorders
(b)       Unipolar depressive disorders
(c)        Panic disorder
(d)       Obsessive compulsive disorder
75.      Direct mailing as a means of communication, is an example of :
(a)     Individual approach
(a)        Group approach
(b)       Mass approach
(c)        Two way communication
76.      Autosomal recessive disorders include all, except :
(a)        Sickle cell anaemia
(b)       Retinoblastoma
(c)        Albinism
(d) Hirschsprung disease
77.      Which of the following is X-linked dominant trait ?
(a) Haemophilia-A
 (b)  Colour blindness
(c)        Vitamin D resistant rickets
(d)       Duchenne muscular dystrophy
78.      Mansonoides mosquito transmits the following disease :
(a)        Bancroftian filariasis
(b)        Brugian filariasis
(c)     Malaria
(d)    Dengue

79.     Kuppu Swamy Socio-economic Status Scale comprises of :
(a)        Education, family size and housing
(b)       Education, occupation and housing
(c)           Income, family size and land holding (d) Education, occupation and income „
80.     Failure rate of contraceptive method is determined by :
(a)        Half life index
(b)       Pearl index
(c)        Total fertility rate
(d)       Age specific fertility rate
81.     Which of the following drugs is not used for chemo prophylaxis of malaria ?
(a)    Chloroqiiin
(b)     Proguanil
(c)        Artesunate
(d)       Mefloquin
82.     The net reproduction rate of 1 can be achieved only if the following rate exceeds 60%:
(a)        Total fertility rate
(b)       Total marital fertility rate
(c)          Age specific marital fertility rate
(d)          Couple protection rate
83.     According to the new guidelines, the Body Mass Index cut off for overweight is :
(a) >18
(b) >25
(c)        >30
84.       Horrock's apparatus is used to measure :
(a)        Free chlorine
(b)       Combined chlorine
(c)        Free and combined chlorine
(d) Chlorine demand
85  Among the causes of maternal mortality, which of the following is correct in descending order of maternal deaths in India ?
(a)        Haemorrhage, obstructed labour,
abortion, sepsis
           (b)  Obstructed labour, haemorrhage,
abortion, sepsis
(c)        Sepsis, obstructed labour, abortion,

(d)       Haemorrhage, sepsis, abortion,
 obstructed labour
86.      The order of priority of immunization
       strategy to prevent congenital rubella
       infection from first to last is :
(a)      Infants children 1-14 years→
       women of reproductive age group s
      (b)    Infants →women of reproductive age
      group →children 1-14 years
(c) women of reproductive age group →
           Infants → children 1-14 years
     (d)   Women of reproductive age group→
           children 1-14 years →Infants
87.    The attitude is a domain of :
1.       cognitive learning
2.       psychomotor learning
3.       affective learning
4.       temporal learning

88.     Diethyltoluamide is an effective :
(b)     LarvicidaJ
(c)      Agent against pupae of Anopheles
(e)        Repellent
(d)     Space spray

89.      The term Perinatal covers the period from :
(a) 28 weeks gestation to one week after                               birth
(b)       First 4 weeks after birth
(c)        28 weeks gestation to one month after birth
(d)       24 weeks gestation to one week after birth              
90.   Which of the following is an absolute contraindication      for combined contraceptive oral pills ?
(a)        Diabetes mellitus
(b)       Migraine
(c)        Previous history of thromfeo-embolism
(d)       Gall bladder disease
91.      The commonest site for thyroglossal cyst is :
(a) Suprahyoid  
(b) Subhyoid
 (d) Submentum
92.      Factors important in the formation of gall stones include all of the following except :
(a)        Cholesterol saturation in bile
(b)       Gall bladder motility
(c)        The size of micelles
(d)       Obesity
93.      Universal precautions to be followed by the surgical team include all of the
 following except
(a)        Wearing double gloves
(b)       Downing water repellant gown
(c)         Wearing bg-ots
(d)       Prophylactic antimicrobials
94. The clinical signs of brain-stem death include all of the following except :
                a.      Profound hypotension
               b.      Absence of spontaneous respiration
                c.      Absent oculo-vestibular reflex
               d.      Absence of pharyngeal reflex
95.     Non-cardiac cause of raised central venous       pressure include all of the following except :
a.         Abdominal compartment syndrome
b.         Tension pneumothorax
c.         Positive pressure ventilation
d.        Hyper-voiemia
96.     Which one of the following fractures is                     most often complicated by fat embolism ?
a.      Lumbar vertebrae
b.      Supra condyler humerous
c.      Shaft of femur
d.     Shaft of tibia
97.  A 25-years old patient has 5 x 5 cm. amoebic       abscess in right lobe of liver. He is febrile       and has pain right hypochondrium. His            primary management would include :
 a.    Laparotomy and drainage
 b.   Ultra-sound guided aspiration
 c.    Ultra-sound guided placement of
        pigtail catheter
 d.  Administration of antibiotic and observation
98.  The surgical complications of typhoid fever          include all of the following except :
a.      Perforation peritonitis
b.      Acute cholecystitis
c.      Splenic abscess
d.     Acute pancreatitis
99. The complications of ascaris                                                             lumbricoides infestation include                          all of the following except :
a.       acute intestinal obstruction
b.      lower gastro intestinal bleed
c.        cholangitis and obstructive jaundice
b.      pancreatitis
         100. Treatment of choice for acute femoral                              artery embolism is :
a.    Heparin
b.   Warfarin   
c.    Immediate embolectomy
d.   Embolectomy after rest for few days
101.  Most common manifestation of Wilm's tumour is :
a.        Haematuria
b.        Abdominal mass
c.        Hypertension
d.       Loss of weight
102.  The most common early sign of increasing intracranial pressure in the victim of head injury is :
a.       Change of level of consciousness
b.       Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
c.        Contralateral pupillary dilation
d.       Hemiparesis
103.  Protein metabolism after trauma is characterized by all of the following except
a.       Increased liver gluconeogenesis
b.       Inhibition of skeletal muscle break­down by interleukin I and tumour necrosis factor
c.        Increase urinary nitrogen loss
d.       Hepatic synthesis of acute phase reactants

104.  Deep vein thrombosis of calf is best managed by :
(a)        anticoagulants
(b)       thrombolysis
(c)  surgical venous thrombectomy
(d) active physiotherapy
105.  All of the following cranial nerves pass through the jugular foramen except :
(a)        Glossopharyngeal
(b)       Vagus
(c)        Spinal accessory
(d)       Hypoglossal
106.  Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in childhood is :
(a)        Intussusception
(b)        Hirschsprung's disease
(c)        Volvulus
(d)        Mucoviscidosis
107.  Surgical treatment for a 40-years old lady with 3 x 3 cm. papillary carcinoma thyroid with level III enlarged lymph nodes is :
(a)        Total thyroidectomy with excision of involved nodes
(b)       total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection .
(c)        Total thyroidectomy with functional ,       neck dissection
(d)       Total thyroidectomy with post­operative radio-iodineliblation
108. To differentiate pancreatic ascites from ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver, the most important test is :
(a) Abdominal ultrasound
(b) Computed tomogram (CT) scan
(c) Abdominal paracentesis
(d) Endoscopic retrograde cholangio
      pancreatography (ERCP)
109. Which of the following ligaments contains splenic artery ?
(a)       Gastro-splenic ligament
(b)       Spleno-colic ligament
(c)        Spleno-renal ligament
(d)       Spleno-phrenic ligament
110. Splenectomy is best indicated for :
(a) Hereditarv spherocytosis
(b)     Gaucher's disease
(c)      Cirrhosis liver with portal hypertension
(d)     Sickle cell disease
111. A retained stone in CBD (common bile duct) diagnosed by T-tube cholangeogram is best treated by :
(a)       Dissolution therapy
(b)       Re-exploration ofcommon bile duct
(c)       Extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
(d)       Endoscopic papillotomy
112. All of the following statements regarding gallstones are true except:
(a)  Mixed stones are the commonest type
(b)  They are mostly radio opaque
(c)  They can cause intestinal, obstruction
(d)  They can lead to acute cholangitis by slipping into the common bile duct
113. Pancreatic calculi are composed of :
(a)                          Calcium phosphate
         (b) Calcium carbonate
         (c)  Calcium oxalate
         (d)  Calcium bilirubinate

114. The nerve most likely to get injured in patients with fracture of upper end of radius is :
(d)    Median
(a)        Ulna
(b)       Radial
(c)        Posterior interosseous
115.  A 65-year old patient presents with obstructive jaundice and 15 kg weight loss. An ultrasound shows a 4 cm mass in the head of the pancreas with dilated bile ducts. Further work up includes a helical CT scan. The study shows several lesions consistent with metastasis in the right and left lobes of the liver and encasement of gastro duodenal artery. The most appropriate treatment would be :
(a)        Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)
(b)       Total pancreatectomy
(c)        Endoscopic stenting of bile duct
(d)       Biliary and gastric bypass
116.  Laparoscopic instruments are best sterilized by:
(a)      Autoclavi
(b)  Hot air oven
(c)    2% Glutaraldehyde
         (d)   Ethylene oxide
117.  Primary hyper-aldosteronism presents with                           all of the following except :
(b)       Hypertension
(c)        Hyperkalemia
(d)       Periodic paralysis
(e)        Frontal headache
118.                  Consider following statements in respect of parentera] nutrition :
1.          indicated in patients when enteral nutrition cannot be given
2.          parenteral route is a better choice than enteral route
3.          abnormalities of liver functions can occur on prolonged use
4.          hyperglycemia is common
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a)        1,2, 3 and 4
(b)        1,3 and 4 only
(c)        1,2 and 3 only
(d)      2, 3, and 4 only
119.  The 'claw sign' in barium enema study favours the diagnosis of :
(a)    Intussusception
(b)    Sigmoid volvulus
(c)   Crohn's disease
(d)  Gastro colic fistula
120.  A 32 year-old male patient presents in casualty department with history of RTA one hour back; on examination is found that BP Js 90/50 mm Hg, pulse rate 110 beats per minute, with fracture left lower ribs, and generalized distension of abdomen with guarding and rigidity. He also complained of pain on the tip of the left shoulder. As a casualty Medical Officer you must exclude which one of the following clinical conditions on the primary basis ?
a)           Cardiac tamponade
b)             Intestinal perforation
c)              Rupture left lobe of liver
d)             Splenic rupture


jdc-titu said...

Uterine prolapse may include other complications such as constipation, infection in uterus, haemorrhoids. Surgery is generally done to tighten the uterus muscles in extreme cases. But some natural therapies and yoga can be done to strengthen the vaginal muscles. comprehensive and informative site for mothers who want to learn about uterine prolapsed or Uterine Prolapse Symptoms and find ways to deal with pain and stress of this condition.

Denishsir said...

What is uterine prolapse? Uterine prolapse means that your uterus (womb) has moved from its normal position down into your vagina. The uterus may be only slightly out of position, or it may move down so far that it can be seen outside the vagina. comprehensive and informative site for mothers who want to learn about uterine prolapse or Uterine Prolapse Symptoms and find ways to deal with pain and stress of this condition.

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