1.
The treatment of. choice for congenital
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is :
a.
Heller's operation
b.
Duodenojejunostomy
c.
Ramstedt's operation
d.
Gastrojejunostomy
2.
Carcinoma of pyriform fossa usually presents
with :
a.
Cough
b.
Hoarseness
c.
Lump in the neck
d.
Dysphagia
3.
Pelvic abscess can present with all symptoms except :
a.
Fever
b.
pain abdomen
c.
bleeding rectum
d.
diarrhea with mucus discharge
4.
Femoral hernias are more common in females
because :
a.
femoral canal is long
b.
femoral canal is wide
c.
foments of femoral canal neck are weak
d.
weakness of post Inguinal wall
5.
The most common ocular lesion peculiar to HIV
infection in early stage is :
a.
Soft exudates in retina
b.
Retinal haemorrhages.
c.
Retinal necrosis Kaposi's sarcoma
d.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma
6.
Consider the following statements in respect of
prostatic carcinoma :
1.
Most originate from peripheral zone
2.
Prostatic needle biopsy is better performed
under trans rectal ultrasound
3.
Prostate specific antigen is the specific test
4.
L.H.R.H. analogues are used as medical treatment
for metastatic disease
Which of the statements
given above is/ are correct ? .
a.
1 and
2 only
b.
2, 3
and 4
c.
d.
1
and 3
e.
(d)' 1,2
and 4
7. Regarding varicocele, all of the following
are true
except:
a.
Varicosity of cremasteric veins
b.
Left side is affected usually
c.
Feels like a bag of worms
d.
May lead to infertility
8. The
commonest complication of fracture of clavicle is :
a.
malunion
b.
non union
c.
a vascular necrosis
d.
Neurovascular injury
9.
The most frequent complication of fracture
pelvis is injury to :
a.
penile urethra
b.
membranous urethra
c.
urinary bladder
d.
rectum.
10.
Burns involving the head and neck region are particularly
dangerous because :
a. Face is a very vascular area
b. There
may be thermal damage to the respiratory passage
c.
Renal failure is more frequent
d. Blood
loss may be more severe
11.
Pregnancy is characterized by the following
physiological changes except :
a. Delayed
gastric emptying time
b. Dilatation
of ureters
c. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
d. Increased
tidal volume
12.
Donovan bodies are associated with :
a. Gonorrhoea
b. Herpes
genitalis
c. Chlamydia
trachomatis infection
d.
Granuloma inguinale
13.
During
pregnancy, vaccination can be given against all these diseases except:
a.
Hepatitis A
b.
Tetanus
c.
Mumps
d.
Hepatitis B
14.
What is the likely cause of primary amenorrhoea together with
retention of urine in an
adolescent girl ?
a.
Turner's syndrome
b.
Adrenal hyperplasia
c.
Haematocolpos
d.
Testicular Feminizing syndrome
15. Histological
type of endometrium that is suggestive
of ovulation is
a.
proliferative phase
b.
secretory phase
c.
cystic glandular hyperplasia
d.
adenomatous hyperplasia
16.
The ferning of cervical mucous is due to the
high concentration of :
a.
Sodium chloride .
b. Potassium
chloride
c.
Sodium bicarbonate
d. Potassium
bicarbonate
17.
A pregnant woman in IIIrd trimester
has normal blood pressure in the arms when standing and sitting but drops to
90/50 when lying down. What is the likely cause ? .
a. Compression of
uterine artery
b. Compression of aorta
c.
Compression of inferior vena cava
d.
Compression of internal iliac artery
18. Which one of the following statements is
not correct about foetal circulation ?
a. Umbilical artery carries
oxygenated blood to the
fetus
a. Umbilical vein
carries oxygenated
blood to the fetus
b. Umbilical artery carries deoxygenated
fetal blood to the placenta
d Two umbilical
arteries and one umbilical vein
traverse through umbilical cord between
the fetus and placenta
19. Which of the following is a contraindication
for breast feeding ?
a. Maternal
diarrhea
b. 1st
24 hours after Caesarean section
c. Maternal tuberculosis
d.
None of the above
20.
Meconium aspiration syndrome can be prevented by taking the following measures except :
a. Amnioinfusiont
b. Oropharyngeal suctioning
c.
Suctioning of trachea through laryngoscope
d.
Delivering the baby by
emergency
caesarean section
21.
A 15-year old unmarried girl comes with
history of dysmenorrhea. Age of menarche is 12
years. Per abdominal and per rectum examination reveal nothing abnormal. You
will treat the patient with : a. Antibiotics
b. Hormones
c. Reassurance and giving antispasmodics throughout
the month .
d. Regssurance and giving antispasmodics during menses
22. A pregnant lady with 37 weeks gestation has been admitted with history of premature rupture of membranes for 6 hours. She is best treated with :
a. steroids
followed by labour induction
b. steroids
and antibiotics
c. steroids
and tocolytic agents
d.
antibiotics followed by labour inductions
23.
Use of ventose is preferred over forceps in the
delivery of :
a. occipito
posterior position
b. after
coming head in breech
c. face presentation
d.foetal distress
24. Normal
pH of foetal scalp blood is :
a. 7.0
b. 7.10
c. 7.20
d.
7.30
25.
Face to pubis delivery is common in which type of
pelvis ?
a. Android
b. Gynaecoi
c. Anthropoid
d. Platypelloid
26.
The following are the signs of placental separation except :
a. The
uterus becomes hard and globular
b. Permanent
lengthening of the cord v
c. The fundal height decreases
d. Fresh
bleeding occurs
27.
The following conditions are associated with molar
pregnancy except :
a. Pregnancy
induced hypertension
b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Gestational diabetes
d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
28. What
is the commonest cause of retention of urine at 12-14 weeks of pregnancy ? a.
a. Impacted pelvic tumour
b.Retroverted gravid uterus
c.
Diminished bladder tone
d.
Prolapse of uterus
29. Which of the following is a uterine compression
suture during management of atonic post partum haemorrhage ?
(a)
Sturmdorf suture
(b)
B-Lynch suture
(c)
Fothergill's suture
(d)
Moscowitz suture
29.
Which of the following anti-hypertensive
drugs is/are best avoided
during pregnancy ?
(a) Labetalol
(b) Nifedipine
(c)
Alpha methyl dopa
(d) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
31.
The hormone Relaxin of pregnancy is secreted by :
(a) Vagina
(b) Ovary
(c)
Fallopian tube
(d)
Pituitary gland
32. Complications of heparin therapy in
pregnancy include all except
(a) Thrombocytopaenia
(b) Osteoporosis
(c)
Bleeding
(d)
Teratogenicity
33. Misoprostol
can be used during, pregnancy
by the
following routes except :
(a) Intravenous .
(b)
Oral .
(c)
Vaginal
(d)
Sub-lingual
34.Following are the
contraindications for laparoscopic female sterilization except:
(a) Heart disease
(b) Obesity
(c)
Respiratory dysfunction ,
(d) Hiatus
hernia
35. Mifepristone used for inducing abortion acts
on
(a)
Hypothalamopituitary ovarian axis
(b)
Uterine contractility
(c)
Progesterone receptors
(d) AH the above
36. A man underwent
vasectomy, but 6 months later his wife was 16 week pregnant. What is the most
likely cause ?
(a)
Failure of operative procedure
(b)
Pregnancy antedating vasectomy
(c)
Recanalisation of vas
(d) Failure to use
additional contraception in postoperative period
37. Which method of vasectomy has the
highest failure
rate ?
(a) Open ended vasectomy with granulation formation
(b)
Cutting and ligating vas to occlude the proximal and distal lumen
(c)
Use of hemoclips with 1-4 cm gap after cutting proximal and distal ends
(d) Cutting the vas and turning the ends backwards
and ligating with suture material
(38)
All of the following are eligibility criteria for female sterilization except :
(a)
Client's age should not be less than
22 years
or more than 49 years
(b) Client
should be married
(c) Client or her spouse must not have undergone
sterilisation in the past
(d) At least two living children should be present
(39.)
During the first 6 months of the gestation, which amongst the following
contraceptives is not advisable ?
(a)
DMPA
(b) Combined oral contraceptive
pills
(c)
Progestin only pills
(d) Norplant
(40.) Oral contraceptives
may provide protection against the following malignancies except
1.
Cervical cancer
2.
Endometrial cancer
3.
Ovarian cancer
Select the correct answer
using the code „ given
below :
(a) 1 only
(b)
2 and (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
(41.)
The following drugs are effective in the management of menorrhagia except :
(a) Non-steroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs
(b) Progestational agents
(c)
Prostaglandins
(d) Anti-fibrinolytic drugs
(42) Out of the following, select the
histologic type of cancer endometrium which has the
worst
prognosis :
(a)
Mucinous adeno carcinoma
(b) Well
differentiated endometrioid adeno carcinoma
(c)
Clear cell carcinoma
(c)
Papillary serous carcinoma
(43)
What is the commonest cause of Vulvo vaginal
Fistula in developing countries ?
(a) Radiotherapy for treatment of
carcinoma
cervix
(b) Obstructed
labour
(c)
Injury during hysterectomy
(b)
Carcinoma of bladder
(44)A 28-year old woman comes with infertility.
Husband's semen analysis is normal. Endometrial biopsy shows secretary changes
with no evidence of tuberculosis. On hysterosalpingography both tubes show tubal
blockage. What should be the next step in management ?
(a)
Tuboplasty
(b) Diagnostic laparoscopy and chromo-
pertubation
(c)
IVF
(d)
ICSI
(45)
Which of the following statements true for
maternal rubella infection ?
(a) It leads to abortions before 16 weeks
of gestation
(b) 24%
incidence of congenital infection if acquired during the last month of
pregnancy
(c)
It causes blindness with recurrent infection
(d)
The primary infection is responsible for birth defects
46. Contraindications
for medical abortions are all except :
(a) Age more than
35 years
(b) Hemoglobin
less than 8 gm%
(c)
Undiagonised adnexal mass
(d) Uncontrolled
seizure disorder
47 In an Rh
negative mother who has delivered an Rh positive baby, prophylactic
anti-D is
indicated :
(a)
As a routine procedure in all cases
(b)
If indirect Coombs' test is positive
(c)
If indirect Coombs' test is negative
(d) If direct Coombs' test is positive
48. A
woman dies from a heart disease six days after delivery. This would come under the category of :
(a)
Unclassified death
(b) Indirect maternal death
(c)
Direct maternal death
(d) Medical (non-maternal) death
49. In a woman using an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) an
intrauterine 1 pregnancy
occurs and the IUCD threads
are visible. What is the reason
to recommend removal of the device
?
(a) To prevent the risk of subsequent septic abortion and preterm labour
(b)
To prevent congenital abnormality of the newborn
(c)
To prevent post partum haemorrhage
(d) To
prevent perforation
50
Success of tubal re-canalization is best
with:
(a)
Pomeroy's technique
(b) laparoscopic ring application
(c)
Fimbriectomy
(e)
Uchida's technique
51.
The amount of previously unrecognized disease
that is diagnosed as a result of the screening effort is known as :
(a)
Predictive accuracy
(b) Reliability
(c)
Yield
(d)
Validity
52. The
total osmolarity of new oral rehydration solution formulation is :
(a) 210 mmol/litre
(b) 245 mmol/litre
(c)
255 mmol/litre
(d)
300 mmol/litre
53.
Which one of the following is not consistent
with Aedes egypii's
life cycle ?
(a) Breeds in artificial collection of water
(b) Eggs
are boat shaped
(c)
Larva has siphon tube
(d) Wings unspotted in the adult
54.
The National Health Policy 2002 target to be
achieved by the year 2010 is :
(a)
Eradication of polio and yaws
(b)
Elimination of leprosy
(c) Achieve zero level growth of HIV/ AIDS
(d) Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000
live births
55.
One of the following is not a characteristic of causal association :
(a)
Coherence
(b)
Specificity
(c)
Sensitivity
(d) Biological plausibility
56.
Discarded tablets are disposed off in :
(a)
Yellow plastic bag
(b)
Red plastic bag
(c)
Blue plastic bag '
(d)
Black plastic bag
57.
In a village of 5,000 population, 50 persons
suffered from cholera and 10 persons died.
What will be the case
fatality ratio ?
(a)
0.2%
(b)
1.0%
(c)
5.0%
(d)
20.0%
58.
One of the following diseases has more than one
route of transmission :
(a) Influenza
(b)
Leprosy
(c)
Qhplera
(d)
Typhoid fever
59.
Serial interval is the gap between :
(a) Primary and secondary case
(b)
Index and primary case
(c)
Introduction of infection and development of
maximum infectivity
(d)
Transmission of infection from patient to
another susceptible host
60.
The best indicator for a potential explosive-
ness of plague outbreak is :
(a)
Total flea index
(b)
Cheopis index
(c)
Specific percentage of fleas
(d)
Burrow index
61.
Tuberculous pericarditis is included in which,
treatment category of DOTS strategy?
(a)
Category I
(b)
Category II
(c)
Category III
(d)
Category IV
62.
Vision 2020 India includes all of the following except
:
(a)
Refractive errors
(b)
Cataract
(c)
Glaucoma
(d) Epidemic
conjunctivitis
63.
The most sensitive index for surveillance of
malaria transmission is :
(a)
Spleen rate
(b)
Parasite density index
(c)
Infant parasite rate
(d)
Proportional case rate
64.
Chandler's index is used in :
(a)
Cholera
(b)
Typhoid
(c)
Round worm infestation
(d)
Hook worm infestation
65.
Integrated management
of neonatal and childhood illness includes all except
:
(a)
Malaria
(b)
Pneumonia
(c)
Diarrhoea
(d) Tuberculosis
66.
Toxic shock syndrome occurs after one of the
following vaccinations :
(a)
DPT
(b)
Recombinant DNA Vaccine againsHepatitis B
(c)
Oral polio vaccine
(d)
Measles vaccine
67.
The health indicatorobtained by dividing height
by cube root of weight is :
(a)
Quetelet's index
(b)
Brocca index
(c)
Corpulence index
(d)
Ponderal index
68.
What is the method of sampling in which the
units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe ?
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Systematic
random sampling
(c)
Stratified random sampling
(d)
Snow-ball sampling
69.
Child starts speaking short sentences by the age
of:
(a)
12 months
(b)
15 months
(c)
24 months
(d) 36 months
70.
A village has a total of 100 under-five
children. The coverage with measles vaccine in these age groups is 60%.
Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside,
twenty six children developed measles later. The secondary attack rate of
measles is :
(a)
16.6%
(b) 26.0%
(c)
65.0%
(d) 66.6%
71.
The method of choice for purification of highly
polluted water on a large scale is :
(a) Boiling and chlorination
(b)
Chlorination only
(c)
Super-chlorination followed by dechlorination
(d)
Ultraviolet light treatment
72.
Dehydration is not a feature of one of the
following diseases :
(a)
Cerebral malaria
(b)
Pertussis
(c)
Cholera
(d)
MDR-TB
73.
The useful fertility indicator where birth
registration statistics do not exist or are inadequate is :
(a) Abortion rate
(b) Child-woman ratio
(c) Male-female
ratio
(d) Net
reproduction rate
.
74.
The Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALYs) lost
due to neuropsychiatry disorders is highest in :
(a)
Bipolar
affective disorders
(b) Unipolar depressive disorders
(c)
Panic disorder
(d)
Obsessive compulsive disorder
75.
Direct mailing as a means of communication, is
an example of :
(a) Individual approach
(a)
Group approach
(b) Mass
approach
(c)
Two way communication
76.
Autosomal recessive disorders include all, except :
(a)
Sickle cell anaemia
(b)
Retinoblastoma
(c)
Albinism
(d) Hirschsprung disease
77.
Which of the following is X-linked dominant
trait ?
(a) Haemophilia-A
(b) Colour blindness
(c)
Vitamin D resistant rickets
(d)
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
78.
Mansonoides mosquito transmits the following
disease :
(a) Bancroftian filariasis
(b) Brugian filariasis
(c) Malaria
(d) Dengue
79.
Kuppu Swamy Socio-economic Status Scale
comprises of :
(a)
Education, family size and housing
(b) Education,
occupation and housing
(c)
Income, family size and land holding (d) Education, occupation and
income „
80.
Failure rate of contraceptive method is
determined by :
(a)
Half life index
(b)
Pearl index
(c)
Total fertility rate
(d)
Age specific fertility rate
81.
Which of the following drugs is not used for
chemo prophylaxis of malaria ?
(a) Chloroqiiin
(b) Proguanil
(c)
Artesunate
(d)
Mefloquin
82.
The net reproduction rate of 1 can be achieved
only if the following rate exceeds 60%:
(a)
Total fertility rate
(b) Total
marital fertility rate
(c)
Age specific marital fertility rate
(d)
Couple protection rate
83.
According to the new guidelines, the Body Mass
Index cut off for overweight is :
(a) >18
(b) >25
(c)
>30
(d)>35
.
84. Horrock's
apparatus is used to measure :
(a)
Free chlorine
(b)
Combined chlorine
(c)
Free and combined chlorine
(d) Chlorine demand
85 Among
the causes of maternal mortality, which of the following is correct in
descending order of maternal deaths in India ?
(a)
Haemorrhage, obstructed labour,
abortion,
sepsis
(b)
Obstructed labour, haemorrhage,
abortion,
sepsis
(c)
Sepsis, obstructed labour, abortion,
haemorrhage
(d) Haemorrhage, sepsis, abortion,
obstructed labour
86.
The order of priority of immunization
strategy to prevent congenital rubella
infection from first to last is :
(a)
Infants children 1-14 years→
women of
reproductive age group s
(b) Infants →women of reproductive age
group
→children 1-14 years
(c) women of reproductive age
group →
Infants → children 1-14 years
(d) Women of reproductive age group→
children 1-14 years →Infants
87.
The attitude is a domain of :
1. cognitive
learning
2. psychomotor
learning
3. affective learning
4. temporal
learning
88. Diethyltoluamide
is an effective :
(b) LarvicidaJ
(c) Agent
against pupae of Anopheles
(e)
Repellent
(d) Space spray
89.
The term Perinatal covers the period from :
(a) 28 weeks gestation to one week after birth
(b) First
4 weeks after birth
(c)
28 weeks gestation to one month after birth
(d) 24
weeks gestation to one week after birth
90. Which of the following is an absolute
contraindication for combined
contraceptive oral pills ?
(a)
Diabetes mellitus
(b) Migraine
(c)
Previous history of thromfeo-embolism
(d) Gall
bladder disease
91.
The commonest site for thyroglossal cyst is :
(a)
Suprahyoid
(b)
Subhyoid
(c)Foramencaecum
(d) Submentum
92.
Factors important in the formation of gall
stones include all of the following except :
(a)
Cholesterol saturation in bile
(b) Gall
bladder motility
(c)
The size of micelles
(d)
Obesity
93.
Universal precautions to be followed by the
surgical team include all of the
following except
(a)
Wearing double gloves
(b)
Downing water repellant gown
(c)
Wearing
bg-ots
(d)
Prophylactic antimicrobials
94. The clinical signs of brain-stem death include all
of the following except :
a.
Profound hypotension
b.
Absence of spontaneous respiration
c.
Absent oculo-vestibular reflex
d.
Absence of pharyngeal reflex
95. Non-cardiac
cause of raised central venous pressure
include all of the following except :
a.
Abdominal compartment syndrome
b.
Tension pneumothorax
c.
Positive pressure ventilation
d.
Hyper-voiemia
96. Which one of the
following fractures is most often complicated by fat embolism ?
a. Lumbar
vertebrae
b. Supra
condyler humerous
c. Shaft
of femur
d.
Shaft of tibia
97. A 25-years old
patient has 5 x 5 cm. amoebic abscess
in right lobe of liver. He is febrile and
has pain right hypochondrium. His primary
management would include :
a. Laparotomy
and drainage
b. Ultra-sound
guided aspiration
c. Ultra-sound
guided placement of
pigtail catheter
d. Administration
of antibiotic and observation
98. The surgical
complications of typhoid fever include
all of the following except :
a. Perforation
peritonitis
b. Acute
cholecystitis
c. Splenic
abscess
d. Acute
pancreatitis
99. The complications of ascaris lumbricoides infestation include all of the following except :
a.
acute intestinal obstruction
b.
lower gastro intestinal bleed
c.
cholangitis and obstructive jaundice
b.
pancreatitis
100. Treatment
of choice for acute femoral artery embolism is :
a.
Heparin
b.
Warfarin
c.
Immediate embolectomy
d. Embolectomy after rest for few days
101. Most
common manifestation of Wilm's tumour is :
a.
Haematuria
b.
Abdominal mass
c.
Hypertension
d. Loss
of weight
102. The
most common early sign of increasing intracranial pressure in the victim of
head injury is :
a.
Change of level of consciousness
b.
Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation
c.
Contralateral pupillary dilation
d. Hemiparesis
103. Protein
metabolism after trauma is characterized by all of the following except
a. Increased
liver gluconeogenesis
b.
Inhibition of skeletal muscle breakdown by interleukin
I and tumour necrosis factor
c.
Increase urinary nitrogen loss
d. Hepatic
synthesis of acute phase reactants
104.
Deep vein thrombosis of calf is best managed by
:
(a)
anticoagulants
(b)
thrombolysis
(c)
surgical venous thrombectomy
(d)
active physiotherapy
105.
All of the following cranial nerves pass through
the jugular foramen except :
(a)
Glossopharyngeal
(b)
Vagus
(c)
Spinal accessory
(d)
Hypoglossal
106.
Most common cause of intestinal obstruction in
childhood is :
(a)
Intussusception
(b)
Hirschsprung's disease
(c)
Volvulus
(d)
Mucoviscidosis
107.
Surgical treatment for a 40-years old lady with
3 x 3 cm. papillary carcinoma thyroid with level III enlarged lymph nodes is :
(a)
Total thyroidectomy with excision of involved
nodes
(b)
total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection
.
(c)
Total thyroidectomy with functional , neck
dissection
(d)
Total thyroidectomy with postoperative
radio-iodineliblation
108.
To differentiate pancreatic ascites from ascites
secondary to cirrhosis of the liver, the most important test is :
(a) Abdominal
ultrasound
(b) Computed tomogram (CT) scan
(c) Abdominal
paracentesis
(d) Endoscopic
retrograde cholangio
pancreatography (ERCP)
109.
Which of the following ligaments contains
splenic artery ?
(a)
Gastro-splenic ligament
(b)
Spleno-colic ligament
(c)
Spleno-renal ligament
(d)
Spleno-phrenic ligament
110.
Splenectomy is best indicated for :
(a)
Hereditarv spherocytosis
(b)
Gaucher's disease
(c)
Cirrhosis liver with portal hypertension
(d)
Sickle
cell disease
111.
A retained stone in CBD (common bile duct) diagnosed
by T-tube cholangeogram is best treated by :
(a)
Dissolution therapy
(b)
Re-exploration ofcommon bile duct
(c)
Extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
(d) Endoscopic papillotomy
112.
All of the following statements regarding
gallstones are true except:
(a) Mixed stones
are the commonest type
(b) They are mostly radio opaque
(c) They can
cause intestinal, obstruction
(d)
They can lead to acute cholangitis by
slipping into the common bile duct
113. Pancreatic
calculi are composed of :
(a)
Calcium
phosphate
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium oxalate
(d) Calcium bilirubinate
114. The
nerve most likely to get injured in patients with fracture of upper end of
radius is :
(d) Median
(a)
Ulna
(b)
Radial
(c)
Posterior interosseous
115. A
65-year old patient presents with obstructive jaundice and 15 kg weight loss.
An ultrasound shows a 4 cm mass in the head of the pancreas with dilated bile
ducts. Further work up includes a helical CT scan. The study shows several
lesions consistent with metastasis in the right and left lobes of the liver and
encasement of gastro duodenal artery. The most appropriate treatment would be :
(a)
Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure)
(b)
Total pancreatectomy
(c)
Endoscopic stenting of bile duct
(d) Biliary and gastric bypass
116. Laparoscopic
instruments are best sterilized by:
(a)
Autoclavi
(b) Hot air oven
(c) 2% Glutaraldehyde
(d)
Ethylene oxide
117. Primary hyper-aldosteronism
presents with all of the following
except :
(b) Hypertension
(c)
Hyperkalemia
(d)
Periodic paralysis
(e)
Frontal headache
118.
Consider following
statements in respect of parentera] nutrition :
1.
indicated in
patients when enteral nutrition cannot be given
2.
parenteral route is a better choice than enteral
route
3.
abnormalities of liver functions can occur on
prolonged use
4.
hyperglycemia is common
Which of the above
statements are correct ?
(a)
1,2, 3 and 4
(b)
1,3 and 4 only
(c)
1,2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only
119. The
'claw sign' in barium enema study favours the diagnosis of :
(a) Intussusception
(b) Sigmoid volvulus
(c) Crohn's disease
(d) Gastro colic fistula
120. A
32 year-old male patient presents in casualty department with history of RTA
one hour back; on examination is found that BP Js 90/50 mm Hg, pulse rate 110
beats per minute, with fracture left lower ribs, and generalized distension of
abdomen with guarding and rigidity. He also complained of pain on the tip of
the left shoulder. As a casualty Medical Officer you must exclude which one of
the following clinical conditions on the primary basis ?
a)
Cardiac tamponade
b)
Intestinal perforation
c)
Rupture left lobe of liver
d)
Splenic rupture
3 comments:
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